This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 5. Sports Medicine. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 2321
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 42-year-old male presents with severe, unprovoked left shoulder pain that awoke him from sleep. The pain lasted intensely for two weeks and then gradually subsided, but was subsequently replaced by profound weakness in shoulder abduction and external rotation. MRI of the shoulder and cervical spine are unremarkable. Electromyography reveals active denervation in the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and deltoid. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Parsonage-Turner syndrome
Explanation
This classic presentation—acute, severe, unrelenting shoulder/arm pain lasting days to weeks followed by patchy weakness and atrophy in the shoulder girdle as the pain subsides—is highly characteristic of Parsonage-Turner syndrome (idiopathic brachial neuritis or neuralgic amyotrophy). It most commonly affects the upper trunk nerves (suprascapular, axillary, long thoracic).
Question 2322
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
An elite collegiate baseball pitcher is diagnosed with Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD) after presenting with a significant loss of internal rotation and a total arc of motion that is 20 degrees less than his non-throwing shoulder. Which of the following pathologic changes is the primary driver of this symptomatic internal rotation loss?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Contracture of the posteroinferior capsule
Explanation
Pathologic GIRD is primarily driven by contracture and thickening of the posteroinferior capsule, resulting from repetitive microtrauma during the deceleration phase of throwing. While osseous retroversion of the humeral head alters the arc of motion (shifting it toward external rotation), it preserves thetotal arcof motion. A loss of the total arc of motion (>5-10 degrees) combined with internal rotation deficit indicates true pathologic capsular contracture.
Question 2323
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A professional football player sustains a high-energy hyperdorsiflexion injury to his first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. Clinical examination and MRI confirm a Grade III 'turf toe' injury, defined by complete disruption of the plantar plate complex with proximal migration of the sesamoids. To maximize the probability of return to elite-level sports, which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Surgical repair of the plantar plate and capsuloligamentous complex
Explanation
Turf toe is a sprain of the first MTP joint capsuloligamentous complex. Grade I and II injuries are managed nonoperatively. A Grade III injury involves a complete tear of the plantar plate with proximal sesamoid migration. In elite athletes (such as professional football players), nonoperative management of Grade III injuries frequently results in chronic pain, instability, and weak push-off. Surgical repair of the plantar plate and capsuloligamentous complex is the definitive treatment of choice to restore anatomy and allow return to high-level play.
Question 2324
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
In a patient undergoing a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with 30% glenoid bone loss, what is the primary mechanism by which this procedure confers anterior stability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The sling effect of the conjoint tendon over the subscapularis in abduction and external rotation
Explanation
The Latarjet procedure provides stability via a 'triple blocking' effect. The most important biomechanical contributor is the dynamic 'sling effect' of the conjoint tendon compressing the lower subscapularis when the arm is abducted and externally rotated.
Question 2325
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 23-year-old man reports pain on the superior aspect of his right shoulder with repetitive overhead activities and when lying on his right side. Figure 29 shows an axial MRI scan. What is the most likely diagnosis based on the MRI findings?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Os acromiale
Explanation
Os acromiale represents a failure of fusion of the anterior acromial apophysis and has been reported in approximately 8% of the population. Patients with a symptomatic os acromiale often report impingement-type symptoms with pain over the superior acromion, especially with overhead activities or sleeping. When nonsurgical management is unsuccessful, surgical options include excision, open reduction and internal fixation, and arthroscopic decompression.
Question 2326
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 22-year-old athlete presents with recurrent instability two years after an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. Imaging shows an intact but non-functional graft. What is the most common technical cause of ACL reconstruction failure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Non-anatomic tunnel placement
Explanation
Non-anatomic tunnel placement is the most frequent technical error leading to ACL reconstruction failure. For example, placing the femoral tunnel too anteriorly results in a graft that is excessively tight in flexion and loose in extension, ultimately leading to stretching or rupture.
Question 2327
Topic: Knee Sports
During the physical examination of a patient with a traumatic knee injury, the dial test reveals a 15-degree increase in external rotation on the injured side compared to the normal side when tested at 30 degrees of knee flexion. However, at 90 degrees of knee flexion, the external rotation is symmetric bilaterally. What is the correct diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
Explanation
A positive dial test (asymmetry of >10 degrees of external rotation) exclusively at 30 degrees of flexion indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. If the test is positive at both 30 and 90 degrees, it suggests a combined PCL and PLC injury.
Question 2328
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old hockey player presents with groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs reveal a cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). Which of the following anatomic abnormalities is the primary driver of this specific type of impingement?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreased femoral head-neck offset
Explanation
Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement is caused by an aspherical femoral head with decreased head-neck offset, often quantified by an elevated alpha angle. Pincer-type FAI is typically caused by acetabular abnormalities such as overcoverage or retroversion.
Question 2329
Topic: Knee Sports
A 16-year-old female suffers an acute, traumatic lateral patellar dislocation. Which of the following soft-tissue structures is the primary restraint to lateral patellar translation at 0 to 20 degrees of knee flexion, and is nearly universally ruptured in this injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL)
Explanation
The medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) provides approximately 50-60% of the restraint against lateral patellar displacement in early knee flexion (0 to 20 degrees). MPFL rupture is the essential pathologic lesion in an acute lateral patellar dislocation.
Question 2330
Topic: Knee Sports
Following an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft, a patient complains of a significant loss of knee flexion, though full extension is maintained. Which of the following technical errors is the most likely cause of this specific complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior placement of the femoral tunnel
Explanation
An anteriorly placed femoral tunnel during ACL reconstruction results in a graft that becomes overly tight in flexion, causing a significant loss of knee flexion. Conversely, an anterior tibial tunnel typically restricts extension.
Question 2331
Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 10-year-old boy has activity-related knee pain that is poorly localized. He denies locking, swelling, or giving way. Examination shows mild tenderness at the medial femoral condyle and painless full range of motion without ligamentous instability. Radiographs show an osteochondritis dissecans lesion. What is the best course of action?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Limited activity for 6 to 12 weeks
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The radiographs show an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion in the medial femoral condyle of a skeletally immature patient. The lesion is not displaced from its bed. Nonsurgical management of a stable OCD lesion in a patient with open physes consists of a period of activity limitation and occasional immobilization. Unstable lesions, loose bodies, and patients with closed physes require more aggressive treatment. Most of the surgical procedures can be done arthroscopically. Because the radiographic appearance is typical, biopsy is unnecessary. The radiographs do not show an osteocartilaginous loose body, and the patient reports no catching or locking; therefore, removal of the loose body is not indicated.
Question 2332
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
In the decision-making process for anterior shoulder instability surgery, glenoid bone loss is a critical factor. At what approximate threshold of anterior glenoid bone loss is an isolated arthroscopic Bankart repair generally considered to have an unacceptably high failure rate, thereby mandating a bony augmentation procedure (e.g., Latarjet)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 20 to 25%
Explanation
Traditional biomechanical and clinical studies have established a 'critical' glenoid bone loss threshold of 20% to 25%. Defects larger than this alter the glenohumeral kinematics and contact pressures significantly, resulting in a high failure rate for soft-tissue isolated repairs (Bankart). In these cases, a bony augmentation procedure, such as a Latarjet (coracoid transfer) or iliac crest bone graft, is mandated. (Note: recent literature debates 'subcritical' bone loss around 13.5%, but 20-25% remains the classic absolute indication for bony augmentation).
Question 2333
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 42-year-old male presents with sudden onset of severe, unrelenting right shoulder pain lasting for two weeks, which has now begun to resolve. However, he now notices profound weakness in active external rotation and abduction. Examination demonstrates noticeable atrophy of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. An MRI of the shoulder is negative for a rotator cuff tear. EMG reveals acute denervation potentials in the affected muscles. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Parsonage-Turner syndrome
Explanation
Parsonage-Turner syndrome (neuralgic amyotrophy) classically presents with an acute onset of severe shoulder girdle pain that lasts for 1 to 3 weeks. As the pain subsides, marked weakness and rapid muscle atrophy (typically involving the suprascapular, long thoracic, or axillary nerves) develop. The exact etiology is unknown but is thought to be an immune-mediated or viral neuritis. MRI rules out mechanical tears, and EMG confirms denervation.
Question 2334
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 65-year-old female has a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear and poor forward elevation. A latissimus dorsi tendon transfer is proposed. Which of the following physical examination findings is considered a strong contraindication or predictor of poor outcome for an isolated latissimus dorsi transfer?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Positive lift-off test
Explanation
A successful latissimus dorsi tendon transfer for an irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear relies on the presence of an intact subscapularis to maintain the anterior-posterior force couple of the shoulder. A positive lift-off test indicates subscapularis insufficiency, which is a recognized absolute or strong relative contraindication to latissimus dorsi transfer. Doing the transfer in the face of an incompetent subscapularis results in unconstrained superior escape and poor functional outcomes.
Question 2335
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old overhead athlete presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Magnetic resonance arthrography demonstrates that the anterior labroligamentous complex is avulsed from the glenoid rim and displaced medially and inferiorly along the glenoid neck. The anterior scapular periosteum remains intact but is stripped from the bone. Which of the following eponymous lesions is described?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. ALPSA lesion
Explanation
The scenario describes an ALPSA (Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion) lesion. Unlike a classic Bankart lesion where the periosteum is torn, in an ALPSA lesion the periosteum is intact but stripped, allowing the avulsed labrum to displace medially and inferiorly on the glenoid neck. A Perthes lesion also has an intact periosteum, but the labrum is not medially displaced.
Question 2336
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 32-year-old elite volleyball player presents with insidious onset of vague posterolateral shoulder pain. Physical examination reveals isolated atrophy and weakness of the infraspinatus muscle. Supraspinatus strength and bulk are completely normal. MRI is expected to reveal a paralabral cyst causing nerve compression at which anatomical location?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
Isolated atrophy and weakness of the infraspinatus indicate compression of the suprascapular nerve distal to the innervation of the supraspinatus. This occurs at the spinoglenoid notch, often due to a paralabral cyst originating from a posterior labral tear. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.
Question 2337
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with normal supraspinatus bulk and strength. Where is the most likely anatomic location of the nerve compression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus and then passes through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Compression at the suprascapular notch affects both muscles. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch (often due to a paralabral cyst associated with a SLAP tear in overhead athletes) causes isolated infraspinatus atrophy and weakness in external rotation.
Question 2338
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan is obtained to calculate the 'glenoid track'. If the patient's Hill-Sachs interval (HSI) is determined to be greater than the calculated glenoid track, what is the most appropriate management alongside an anterior stabilization procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Bankart repair plus a Remplissage procedure or bone block.
Explanation
According to the glenoid track concept, if the Hill-Sachs interval (width of the defect plus the intact bone bridge to the rotator cuff insertion) is greater than the glenoid track, the lesion is 'off-track' and will engage the anterior glenoid rim during abduction/external rotation. An isolated Bankart repair has an unacceptably high failure rate in off-track lesions; a Remplissage (infraspinatus tenodesis into the defect) or a bone block (Latarjet) is indicated.
Question 2339
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old contact athlete undergoes a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability associated with 25% glenoid bone loss. The 'sling effect' of this procedure, which contributes significantly to stability at end-range abduction and external rotation, is primarily mediated by which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Conjoint tendon
Explanation
The Latarjet procedure provides stability through a 'triple blocking' effect. The most important dynamic stabilizer is the 'sling effect' created by the conjoint tendon (short head of biceps and coracobrachialis) as it passes through the lower third split of the subscapularis muscle. When the arm is in abduction and external rotation, the conjoint tendon acts as a sling across the anterior-inferior capsule to prevent anterior translation of the humeral head.
Question 2340
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 65-year-old female sustains a 3-part proximal humerus fracture involving the surgical neck and the greater tuberosity. The greater tuberosity fragment is characteristically displaced by the primary deforming forces of the attached musculature. In which direction is this fragment typically displaced, and by which muscles?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superiorly and posteriorly by the supraspinatus and infraspinatus
Explanation
In proximal humerus fractures, the greater tuberosity is the attachment site for the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor. When fractured, it is predictably displaced superiorly and posteriorly due to the unopposed pull of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles.
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