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Question 2101

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 74-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has pain in the shoulder that has failed to respond to nonsurgical management. AP and axillary radiographs are shown in Figures 24a and 24b. Active forward elevation is 120 degrees and external rotation is 30 degrees. At the time of surgery, a 1-cm rotator cuff tear is found, which is repairable. Which of the following treatment options will result in the most predictable pain relief and function? Review Topic

. Total shoulder arthroplasty and rotator cuff repair
. Rotator cuff repair
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Interpositional arthroplasty and rotator cuff repair
. Hemiarthroplasty and rotator cuff repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total shoulder arthroplasty and rotator cuff repair


Explanation

Most studies have shown that total shoulder arthroplasties yield better pain relief and improved forward elevation when compared with hemiarthroplasty in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. Patients with repairable rotator cuff tears should undergo repair at the time of surgery because good results have been shown. Reverse arthroplasties are not indicated with rotator cuff tears that are repairable, and interpositional arthroplasties are not indicated for elderly patients.

Question 2102

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
As a baseball player dives to catch a line drive in the outfield, the ball strikes the tip of the player’s finger when extended, causing forcible flexion to avulse the extensor tendon from the distal phalanx. Following evaluation and normal radiographic findings, initial management should include
. continuous extension splinting to the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint for 6 weeks, followed by night splinting for an additional 6 weeks.
. splinting at the DIP joint in 20 degrees of flexion.
. percutaneous pinning.
. buddy taping.
. dynamic splinting for 8 weeks.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. continuous extension splinting to the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint for 6 weeks, followed by night splinting for an additional 6 weeks.


Explanation

Avulsion of the terminal extensor tendon from the distal phalanx (mallet or baseball finger) may or may not be associated with a bony avulsion. The injury is caused by forcible flexion of the DIP joint while catching a ball or hitting an object with the finger extended. Most authorities recommend continuous extension splinting to the DIP joint for 6 weeks, followed by nighttime splinting for an additional 6 weeks. It must be emphasized to the patient that at no time during the initial 6 weeks of treatment should the DIP joint be allowed to fall into flexion or an additional 6 weeks of continuous splinting is required.

Question 2103

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
Figure 7 shows a sagittal T1-weighted MRI scan. What muscle/tendon is identified by the arrow?
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis
. Long head of triceps
. Latissimus dorsi

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teres minor


Explanation

The sagittal T1-weighted MRI scan is useful for interpreting the quality of muscle. The arrow is pointing to the teres minor.

Question 2104

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Figure 50 shows the cross table lateral radiograph of a 31-year-old paratrooper who has recalcitrant groin pain. The pain is worse after activities such as standing or sitting (driving). Examination reveals that pain can be reproduced by internal rotation of the leg with the hip and knee in 90 degrees of flexion. Extensive nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. What is the treatment of choice?
. Periacetabular osteotomy
. Femoral neck osteotomy
. Femoroacetabular osteoplasty
. Hip arthroscopy and labral debridement
. Hip arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoroacetabular osteoplasty


Explanation

The radiograph reveals the classic “bump” seen in patients with femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). This patient has cam impingement. The treatment involves surgical dislocation of the hip with preservation of the blood supply to the femoral head, removal of the asphericity on the femoral side (femoral osteoplasty), and removal of the acetabular rim (acetabular osteoplasty) if the latter is found to contribute to impingement.

Question 2105

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 37-year-old racquet player had dominant shoulder pain for 1 year, and cortisone injections provided only temporary relief. Because MRI findings did not reveal a rotator cuff tear, he underwent arthroscopic treatment including subacromial decompression and spur removal below the distal clavicle. Three years following surgery, he now reports that the pain has returned. What is the most likely cause of his pain?
. Acromioclavicular joint pathology
. Paralabral ganglion
. Villonodular synovitis
. Glenohumeral arthritis
. Superior labrum anterior and posterior lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acromioclavicular joint pathology


Explanation

Co-planing the distal clavicle may lead to painful acromioclavicular joints in up to 35% of patients; this is felt to be related to destabilizing the distal clavicle. Intra-articular diagnosis of synovitis, degenerative joint disease, and superior labrum anterior and posterior lesions would have been identified at initial arthroscopy. Ganglions are typically seen on MRI.

Question 2106

Topic: Knee Sports
A 32-year-old man with worsening left knee pain has a 13-degree varus knee deformity and a history of a complete anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear treated nonsurgically. He previously underwent an arthroscopic partial medial meniscectomy. He continues to experience pain and instability. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
. ACL reconstruction and subsequent proximal tibial osteotomy
. ACL reconstruction alone
. Distal femoral osteotomy with simultaneous ACL reconstruction
. Proximal tibial osteotomy with subsequent ACL reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal tibial osteotomy with subsequent ACL reconstruction


Explanation

Proximal tibial osteotomy is the most appropriate intervention to correct varus malalignment and to reduce stress on the ACL. In some cases, proximal tibial osteotomy alone may address both pain and instability, but if instability persists, subsequent ACL reconstruction can further stabilize the knee with less stress on the graft after the correction of malalignment. ACL reconstruction should be performed only at the same time as or following proximal tibial osteotomy to correct alignment in the setting of varus malalignment.

Question 2107

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
When compared with fresh-frozen bone allograft, freeze-dried bone allograft (FDBA) is characterized by
. higher maximal stiffness in laboratory evaluation.
. slower compaction rate requiring more impactions.
. more stable fixation of the stem when tested in a hip simulator.
. decreased compactness and stiffness.
. decreased brittleness.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. decreased compactness and stiffness.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The compaction of FDBA is faster than that of fresh-frozen bone. The maximal stiffness reached by both materials when tested was the same (55 MPa), but the FDBA required fewer impactions to achieve that stiffness. Because it is easier to impact, the FDBA may be mechanically more efficient than the fresh-frozen bone in surgical conditions. The brittleness of irradiated FDBA, caused by loss of the capacity to absorb energy in a plastic way, increases the compactness and stiffness of morcellized grafts. The failure rate of fusion in adolescent idiopathic scoliosis has been shown to be much higher in FDBA than in either iliac crest bone graft or composite autograft with demineralized bone matrix. There is a greater erosive surface response to allograft when compared to autograft or frozen allograft, with a larger number of osteoclast and osteoblast nuclei seen microscopically.

Question 2108

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Figure 11 shows a consecutive sequence of MRI scans obtained in a 12-year-old boy who has had increasing lateral knee pain and catching for the past 6 months. Examination reveals pain localized to the lateral joint line. Range-of-motion testing reveals a 5-degree lack of full extension on the involved side. Plain radiographs and laboratory values are within normal limits. What is the most appropriate management?
. Activity modification
. Hinged knee brace
. Partial meniscal excision
. Lateral release
. Physical therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Partial meniscal excision


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Discoid menisci are rare causes of lateral knee pain in children. Various etiologies have been proposed, including failure of central absorption of the developing meniscus and hereditary transmission. Patients with discoid menisci have pain, clicking, and locking with a loss of active extension on range-of-motion testing. Classification of discoid menisci according to the Watanabe classification include complete, incomplete, and Wrisberg ligament type. The Wrisberg variant contains an abnormal posterior meniscal attachment. MRI is the diagnostic tool of choice, revealing a thick, flat meniscus generally seen in three consecutive MRI images. Symptomatic knees are often associated with a meniscal tear or degeneration and are managed with arthroscopic partial excision to a more normal shape (saucerization).

Question 2109

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
What type of nerve palsy is most common following elbow arthroscopy?
. Transient posterior interosseous
. Transient ulnar
. Transient radial
. Transient median
. Transient medial antebrachial cutaneous

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transient ulnar


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Transient ulnar nerve palsy is the most common palsy following elbow arthroscopy. The ulnar nerve is most frequently affected, followed by the radial nerve. Injury to the other nerves has been reported but less frequently.

Question 2110

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A patient sustains a transection of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus from a knife injury. This injury would affect all of the following muscles EXCEPT?
. Subscapularis
. Latissimus dorsi
. Supraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Brachioradialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus


Explanation

The posterior cord of the brachial plexus gives rise to the 1) upper subscapular nerve, 2) lower subscapular nerve, 3) thoracodorsal nerve, 4) axillary nerve, and 5) radial nerve. The upper subscapular nerve innervates the subscapularis. The lower subscapular nerve innervates teres major and also subscapularis. The thoracodorsal nerve innervates latissimus dorsi. The axillary nerve innervates deltoid and teres minor. The radial nerve innervates the triceps, brachioradialis, wrist extensors, and finger extensors. The supraspinatus is innervated by the suprascapular nerve off the upper trunk and therefore would not be affected by an injury to the posterior cord.

Question 2111

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 27-year-old woman underwent shoulder arthroscopy for multidirectional instability 3 years ago. She was unable to regain shoulder range of motion despite therapy and has had progressively worsening pain. A current axillary radiograph is shown in Figure 100. In reviewing the medical records from the index procedure, what factor may be significant in contributing to her current condition? Review Topic

. Subsequent development of a supraspinatus tear
. Subscapularis tendon dehiscence
. Coagulation of the anterior humeral circumflex artery
. Use of monopolar radiofrequency thermal capsulorrhaphy
. Lack of compliance with postoperative therapy program

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subsequent development of a supraspinatus tear


Explanation

Reports from several centers suggest the potential to develop glenohumeral chondrolysis because of the heat production associated with use of radiofrequency or laser thermal capsulorrhaphy. A tear of the supraspinatus may lead to poor function and progression to rotator cuff tear arthropathy with superior humeral head migration. Subscapularis dehiscence is a risk in open surgery through a deltopectoral approach and can lead to anterior instability. The anterior humeral circumflex artery is the main supply to the humeral head and its coagulation can lead to osteonecrosis. Whereas a lack of postoperative therapy can lead to unresolved pain and stiffness, chondrolysis is not reported.

Question 2112

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 38-year-old left hand-dominant bodybuilder reports ecchymosis in the left axilla and anterior brachium after sustaining an injury while bench pressing 3 weeks ago. Coronal and axial MRI scans are shown in Figures 16a and 16b. What treatment method yields the best long-term results?
. Physical therapy and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
. Local corticosteroid injection and physical therapy
. Open repair of the long head of the biceps
. Open repair of the sternocostal portion of the pectoralis major tendon
. Open repair of the clavicular portion of the pectoralis major tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open repair of the sternocostal portion of the pectoralis major tendon


Explanation

The MRI scans show a rupture of the sternocostal portion of the pectoralis major tendon. This is the most common site of rupture and bench pressing is the most common etiology. Surgical repair yields better functional outcomes and patient satisfaction for tears not only at the tendon/bone interface but also at the myotendinous junction.

Question 2113

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
Which of the following actions best enhances performance when an athlete is participating in a 10K race?
. Load up on carbohydrates prior to the race.
. Hydrate adequately prior to the race.
. Replace fluid losses during the race.
. Replace calories burned during the race.
. Replace electrolytes lost during the race.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hydrate adequately prior to the race.


Explanation

Proper hydration prior to an athletic event is the most important determinant of performance. It is virtually impossible to keep pace with fluid loss during an athletic competition. When a net loss of fluid occurs and the athlete is properly prehydrated, this fluid loss will not adversely affect performance. It is not necessary to load up on carbohydrates prior to a 10K race, or to replace calories burned during the race. Hyponatremia can develop in ultra-endurance athletes, especially marathoners, if they hydrate without replacing electrolytes lost through sweating; however, this is highly unlikely for a 10K race.

Question 2114

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine
A 17-year-old high school long-distance runner is seeking advice before running a marathon for the first time. What advice should be given regarding his fluid, carbohydrate, and electrolyte intake around the time of the race?
. Restrict fluid intake 2 hours before the start of the race to avoid abdominal cramping.
. Drink low osmolality (less than 10%) solutions before, during, and after the race.
. Drink fruit juice, such as orange juice, instead of water to replenish essential carbohydrates.
. Drink high osmolality (greater than 10%) solutions before and during the race and low osmolality solutions after the race.
. Avoid the use of glucose polymers because they slow down gastric emptying and may lead to abdominal cramping.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Drink low osmolality (less than 10%) solutions before, during, and after the race.


Explanation

The goal of fluid replenishment should be to replace the sweat that has been lost. Sweat is mostly water, with a small concentration of salts and other electrolytes. Absorption is enhanced by solutions of low osmolality. Scientific research has also shown that adding carbohydrates to the drink improves athletic performance. Carbohydrates such as glucose and maltodextrins (glucose polymers) stimulate fluid absorption by the intestines. Fructose slows intestinal absorption of fluids. Drinks that are high in fructose, such as orange juice, can lead to gastrointestinal distress and osmotic diarrhea.

Question 2115

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 42-year-old man has increasing pain and, to a lesser extent, some occasional left knee instability. Several years earlier he sustained a noncontact twisting injury to his knee. He had some initial soreness and pain but was able to resume his normal activities while avoiding sports. On examination, the patient has medial joint line pain, a grade 2+ Lachman, and a slight varus thrust. His radiographs reveal mild-to-moderate medial compartment osteoarthritis with varus alignment. What surgical treatment strategy likely will alleviate his pain? Review Topic

. Distal femoral osteotomy
. Unicompartmental knee replacement
. High tibial osteotomy (HTO), lateral closing wedge
. HTO, medial opening wedge with decreased tibial slope

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal femoral osteotomy


Explanation

This patient had a previous anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and posterolateral complex injury. With chronic instability and osteoarthritis, the best option is HTO with a decrease in the tibial slope to reduce anterior laxity. Distal femoral osteotomy is better suited to address valgus malalignment. The lateral closing-wedge osteotomy would not allow for adequate correction of the tibial slope. Unicompartmental knee replacement is not indicated when there is ligament instability. If the patient continues to experience instability following correction of the varus malalignment, reconstruction of the ACL and posterolateral corner would be appropriate at that time.

Question 2116

Topic: Knee Sports
Figures below depict the AP and lateral radiographs obtained from a 64-year-old man with long-standing right knee osteoarthritis and pain that is unresponsive to nonsurgical treatment. The patient undergoes navigated cruciate-retaining right total knee arthroplasty. After surgery, this patient continues to experience pain and swelling of the knee with recurrent effusions. He returns to the office reporting continued pain 2 years after surgery. He describes instability, particularly when descending stairs. On examination, range of motion of 0° to 120° is observed, with no extensor lag. Slope of the tibial component is 7°. The knee is stable to varus and valgus stress in extension, but flexion instability is present in both the anterior-posterior direction and the varus-valgus direction. Bracing leads to a slight decrease in symptoms but is not well tolerated. Isokinetic testing demonstrates decreased knee extension velocity at mid push. Radiographs demonstrate well-aligned and fixed knee implants. An infection work-up is negative. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention at this time?
. Tibial polyethylene exchange
. Revision of the femoral and tibial components and conversion to a posterior stabilized insert
. Revision of the femoral and tibial components to a constrained rotating hinge prosthesis
. Isolated femoral component revision and upsizing of the femoral implant with a new posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)-retaining polyethylene insert

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision of the femoral and tibial components and conversion to a posterior stabilized insert


Explanation

The patient’s symptoms at follow-up—pain, swelling, and difficulty descending stairs—suggest knee flexion instability. Considering his history, an incompetent PCL must be considered. Revision of the knee to a posterior stabilized or nonlinked constrained condylar implant (depending on the condition of the ligaments) likely is needed to address his symptoms. The difference in extension stability and flexion stability makes polyethylene exchange a poor option. A constrained rotating hinge design is not necessary. Repeat use of a PCL-retaining insert is not recommended. Tibial and femoral revision both are required. Correction of excessive slope will be attained with tibial revision, femoral component revision is required to convert to a PCL-substituting design. There is also an opportunity to increase posterior condylar offset if needed.

Question 2117

Topic: 5. Sports Medicine

A 22-year-old collegiate soccer player undergoes an arthroscopic anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. Postoperatively, she successfully regains full knee flexion but struggles with a persistent 10-degree loss of terminal knee extension. Which of the following technical errors during graft tunnel placement is the most likely cause of this complication?

. Femoral tunnel placed too anteriorly
. Femoral tunnel placed too posteriorly
. Tibial tunnel placed too anteriorly
. Tibial tunnel placed too posteriorly
. Tibial tunnel placed too medially

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral tunnel placed too anteriorly


Explanation

Placing the tibial tunnel too anteriorly causes the ACL graft to impinge against the roof of the intercondylar notch during knee extension, leading to a mechanical block to terminal extension. Conversely, a femoral tunnel placed too anteriorly leads to increased graft tension in flexion, resulting in a loss of knee flexion.

Question 2118

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old rugby player is evaluated for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT reconstruction of the shoulder demonstrates anterior glenoid bone loss estimated at 28%. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment to prevent further recurrence?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with Remplissage
. Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer)
. Putti-Platt procedure
. Arthroscopic capsular plication

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone


Explanation

Critical anterior glenoid bone loss (generally >20-25%) results in a high failure rate if treated with isolated soft-tissue procedures (Bankart repair). A bony augmentation procedure, such as the Latarjet procedure (transfer of the coracoid process with the attached conjoint tendon to the anterior glenoid), is required to restore glenohumeral stability.

Question 2119

Topic: Knee Sports

A 52-year-old female presents with acute medial knee pain after a squatting maneuver. MRI demonstrates a complete radial tear at the posterior root of the medial meniscus, with 4 mm of meniscal extrusion. If left untreated, what is the primary biomechanical consequence of this specific meniscal injury?

. Increased anterior tibial translation during the Lachman test
. Loss of circumferential hoop stresses leading to contact mechanics akin to a total meniscectomy
. Severe rotatory instability during the pivot-shift maneuver
. Excessive lateral joint space opening during varus stress
. Development of patellofemoral tracking disorders

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased anterior tibial translation during the Lachman test


Explanation

The meniscal roots anchor the meniscus to the tibial plateau, allowing it to convert axial loads into circumferential hoop stresses. A root tear disrupts these fibers, resulting in meniscal extrusion and a complete loss of hoop stresses. Biomechanically, the peak contact pressures and contact area in the compartment become nearly identical to a knee that has undergone a total meniscectomy, rapidly predisposing the joint to osteoarthritis.

Question 2120

Topic: Knee Sports

A 13-year-old gymnast presents with vague, activity-related knee pain and a sensation of catching. Radiographs reveal an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion. Where is the classic and most frequent anatomical location for an OCD lesion in the knee?

. Central weight-bearing dome of the lateral femoral condyle
. Posterolateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Inferior pole of the patella
. Anterior aspect of the lateral tibial plateau
. Trochlear groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central weight-bearing dome of the lateral femoral condyle


Explanation

The classic location for osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) in the knee is the posterolateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle (often remembered by the acronym LAME: Lateral Aspect of the Medial Epicondyle/Condyle). This accounts for approximately 70-80% of knee OCD lesions.