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Question 1341

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The concept of the "suspension bridge" model of the rotator cuff, described by Burkhart, emphasizes the importance of which intact structures in maintaining normal glenohumeral kinematics despite a supraspinatus tear?

. Anterior and posterior bands of the coracoacromial ligament
. Superior glenohumeral ligament and coracohumeral ligament
. Rotator cable and the intact subscapularis/infraspinatus force couple
. Long head of the biceps and superior labrum
. Glenoid concavity and the labral bumper

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior and posterior bands of the coracoacromial ligament


Explanation

The rotator cable acts as a suspension bridge to transfer forces. As long as the anterior (subscapularis) and posterior (infraspinatus) transverse force couples remain intact, shoulder kinematics can remain balanced and functional.

Question 1342

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old man sustains a severe fracture-dislocation of the proximal humerus. During an open reduction through a deltopectoral approach, brisk arterial bleeding is encountered near the inferior border of the subscapularis. Which vessel is most likely injured?

. Anterior circumflex humeral artery
. Posterior circumflex humeral artery
. Suprascapular artery
. Thoracoacromial artery
. Axillary artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior circumflex humeral artery


Explanation

The anterior circumflex humeral artery, often referred to as the "three sisters" along with its venae comitantes, runs laterally across the inferior border of the subscapularis. It must be carefully identified and ligated or cauterized during the deltopectoral approach.

Question 1343

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In performing a superior capsular reconstruction (SCR) for an irreparable supraspinatus tear, the graft is typically attached medially to the superior glenoid and laterally to the greater tuberosity. What is the primary biomechanical goal of this procedure?

. To actively elevate the humerus during abduction
. To prevent superior translation of the humeral head
. To restore the transverse anterior-posterior force couple
. To prevent anterior subluxation of the humeral head
. To act as a tenodesis for the long head of the biceps

Correct Answer & Explanation

. To actively elevate the humerus during abduction


Explanation

SCR utilizes a dermal or fascial graft to statically replace the absent superior capsule. This provides a restraint that prevents superior migration of the humeral head, restoring the anatomic fulcrum for the deltoid.

Question 1344

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During a Latarjet procedure, the coracoid process is osteotomized and transferred to the anterior glenoid. Which muscle tendon units are transferred with the coracoid to provide a dynamic "sling" effect?

. Pectoralis minor and short head of the biceps
. Short head of the biceps and coracobrachialis
. Long head of the biceps and coracobrachialis
. Pectoralis major and coracobrachialis
. Short head of the biceps and subscapularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis minor and short head of the biceps


Explanation

The conjoined tendon, consisting of the short head of the biceps and coracobrachialis, remains attached to the transferred coracoid process. When the arm is abducted and externally rotated, it acts as a dynamic sling across the anteroinferior capsule.

Question 1345

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Advanced imaging demonstrates 25% glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair with capsular shift
. Latarjet procedure
. Remplissage procedure alone
. Humeral head osteochondral allograft

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

For anterior shoulder instability with >20-25% glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion, a Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) is the standard of care to restore joint stability.

Question 1346

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old laborer suffers from chronic shoulder pain and pseudoparalysis of external rotation. MRI reveals a massive, retracted, and fatty-infiltrated tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus with an intact subscapularis. Which of the following tendon transfers is most appropriate for restoring active external rotation?

. Pectoralis major
. Latissimus dorsi
. Lower trapezius
. Teres major
. Pectoralis minor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis major


Explanation

Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer is classically indicated to restore active external rotation and forward elevation in patients with massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears and an intact subscapularis.

Question 1347

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old male presents with shoulder pain and weakness in internal rotation after a fall. Which of the following physical examination tests is most sensitive and specific for evaluating a tear of the upper border of the subscapularis tendon?

. Bear hug test
. Napoleon (belly-press) test
. Lift-off test
. Hornblower's sign
. O'Brien's test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bear hug test


Explanation

The bear hug test is highly sensitive and specific for evaluating tears of the upper portion of the subscapularis tendon, whereas the lift-off test primarily isolates the lower portion.

Question 1348

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old weightlifter presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and a positive jerk test. Nonoperative management has failed. Imaging shows a posterior labral tear without significant glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Putti-Platt procedure
. Posterior bone block
. Coracoid transfer to the posterior glenoid
. Rotator interval closure alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair


Explanation

Arthroscopic posterior labral repair is the surgical treatment of choice for recurrent posterior shoulder instability in patients who have failed conservative management and lack significant bone loss.

Question 1349

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old throwing athlete experiences posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase. An MRI arthrogram reveals a partial articular-sided supraspinatus tendon tear and posterosuperior labral fraying. This condition is primarily associated with which of the following pathomechanics?

. Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD)
. Subacromial spurring
. Anterosuperior labral tear
. Scapular winging
. Coracohumeral ligament contracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD)


Explanation

Internal impingement in overhead throwers is heavily associated with glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD), which is caused by a contracted posteroinferior capsule.

Question 1350

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 32-year-old athlete presents with isolated weakness in external rotation of the shoulder. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst causing nerve compression. Where is the cyst most likely located and which muscle will demonstrate isolated atrophy?

. Suprascapular notch; supraspinatus and infraspinatus
. Spinoglenoid notch; isolated infraspinatus
. Spinoglenoid notch; isolated teres minor
. Quadrilateral space; deltoid and teres minor
. Spiral groove; brachioradialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch; supraspinatus and infraspinatus


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch. A cyst at this notch compresses the nerve distally, resulting in isolated infraspinatus atrophy.

Question 1351

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 72-year-old man presents with progressive pseudoparalysis and severe glenohumeral osteoarthritis secondary to a massive rotator cuff tear. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to performing a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty in this patient?

. Intact coracoacromial ligament
. Non-functioning deltoid muscle
. Complete absence of the subscapularis tendon
. Severe fatty infiltration of the infraspinatus
. History of previous arthroscopic rotator cuff debridement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intact coracoacromial ligament


Explanation

Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty relies on a functioning deltoid muscle to elevate the arm. A non-functioning deltoid or paralyzed axillary nerve is an absolute contraindication.

Question 1352

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 65-year-old male undergoes an arthroscopic biceps tenotomy for a symptomatic superior labral tear and associated biceps tendinopathy. Compared to biceps tenodesis, biceps tenotomy is associated with a significantly higher incidence of which of the following?

. Postoperative stiffness
. Deep space infection
. "Popeye" deformity
. Anterior shoulder pain
. Rotator cuff retear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Postoperative stiffness


Explanation

Biceps tenotomy has a significantly higher rate of a cosmetic "Popeye" deformity and subjective muscle cramping compared to biceps tenodesis, though clinical shoulder outcome scores are similar.

Question 1353

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT evaluation demonstrates a 25% anteroinferior glenoid bone loss (an "inverted pear" glenoid). What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with remplissage
. Open capsular shift
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Humeral head structural allograft

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

In patients with significant glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25%), soft tissue stabilization (Bankart repair) has an unacceptably high failure rate. A coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure) is the gold standard to restore the glenoid arc and provide a dynamic sling effect.

Question 1354

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During an arthroscopic stabilization for recurrent shoulder instability, an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion is noted with minimal glenoid bone loss. Which of the following procedures is indicated to address the humeral defect?

. Coracoid transfer to the anterior glenoid
. Infraspinatus tenodesis and posterior capsulodesis (Remplissage)
. Iliac crest bone graft to the humerus
. Arthroscopic subscapularis repair
. Humeral head resurfacing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coracoid transfer to the anterior glenoid


Explanation

An engaging Hill-Sachs lesion without critical glenoid bone loss is effectively treated with a remplissage procedure. This involves tenodesis of the infraspinatus and posterior capsule into the defect, preventing it from engaging the anterior glenoid rim during external rotation and abduction.

Question 1355

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old man presents with shoulder pain and a locked arm in internal rotation after a first-time seizure. Radiographs reveal a posterior shoulder dislocation with an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 35% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Closed reduction and prolonged sling immobilization
. Arthroscopic posterior labral repair
. Transfer of the subscapularis or lesser tuberosity into the defect
. Latarjet procedure
. Total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction and prolonged sling immobilization


Explanation

Posterior dislocations with an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs) between 20% and 40% are typically treated with a McLaughlin or modified McLaughlin procedure. This involves transferring the subscapularis or lesser tuberosity into the defect to provide dynamic stability.

Question 1356

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old male sustains an acute traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation. After successful reduction, he complains of profound weakness in internal rotation. Which of the following physical examination tests is most sensitive for diagnosing an upper subscapularis tendon tear?

. Jobe's test (Empty can test)
. Hornblower's sign
. Bear hug test
. Speed's test
. Neer impingement sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Jobe's test (Empty can test)


Explanation

The Bear hug test is highly sensitive and specific for diagnosing tears of the upper subscapularis tendon. The lift-off test is also used but primarily isolates the lower subscapularis and requires the patient to be able to internally rotate the arm behind the back.

Question 1357

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old professional volleyball player presents with posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst located in the spinoglenoid notch. This finding is most commonly associated with which of the following concomitant labral pathologies?

. Anterior Bankart lesion
. Posterior Bankart lesion
. Type II SLAP tear
. ALPSA lesion
. HAGL lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior Bankart lesion


Explanation

Paralabral cysts in the spinoglenoid notch typically compress the infraspinatus branch of the suprascapular nerve, causing isolated external rotation weakness. They are highly associated with posterior or superior labral tears (often Type II SLAP tears), which act as a one-way valve for joint fluid to escape.

Question 1358

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan demonstrates a 28% anterior glenoid bone defect. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with capsular plication
. Open Bankart repair
. Coracoid process transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Remplissage procedure alone
. Arthroscopic superior labrum anterior and posterior (SLAP) repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with capsular plication


Explanation

For anterior glenoid bone loss exceeding 20-25% in a high-demand athlete, an arthroscopic soft-tissue repair has an unacceptably high failure rate. A bony augmentation, such as a Latarjet procedure, is indicated to restore glenoid track stability.

Question 1359

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The stability of the glenohumeral joint relies heavily on balanced force couples. Which of the following muscular combinations forms the critical force couple that provides a compressive force across the joint in the transverse (axial) plane?

. Deltoid and supraspinatus
. Subscapularis and infraspinatus/teres minor
. Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi
. Trapezius and serratus anterior
. Supraspinatus and coracobrachialis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deltoid and supraspinatus


Explanation

The transverse (axial) force couple consists of the subscapularis anteriorly and the infraspinatus/teres minor posteriorly. This couple centers the humeral head dynamically in the glenoid during arm elevation.

Question 1360

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old overhead athlete presents with insidious onset, vague posterior shoulder pain. Examination reveals normal strength in forward elevation and internal rotation, but objective weakness in external rotation. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. What is the underlying pathology causing this weakness?

. Compression of the axillary nerve
. Compression of the suprascapular nerve affecting only the infraspinatus
. Compression of the suprascapular nerve affecting both supraspinatus and infraspinatus
. Tear of the teres minor tendon
. Compression of the dorsal scapular nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Compression of the axillary nerve


Explanation

A cyst in the spinoglenoid notch typically results from a posterior superior labral tear and compresses the suprascapular nerve distal to the innervation of the supraspinatus. This results in isolated denervation and weakness of the infraspinatus (external rotation).