Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

A 25-year-old tennis player has shoulder pain and weakness to external rotation. MRI scans are shown in Figures 16a and 16b. What is the most likely cause of his weakness?

A 60-year-old right hand-dominant women fell on her outstretched arm and sustained an anterior shoulder dislocation. The shoulder is reduced in the emergency department and she is seen for follow-up 1 week later wearing a sling. Examination reveals that she has significant difficulty raising her arm in forward elevation and has excessive external rotation compared to the contralateral shoulder. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

A patient underwent anterior stabilization of the shoulder 6 months ago, and examination now reveals lack of external rotation beyond 0 degrees. The patient has a normal apprehension sign and normal strength, and the radiographs are normal. Based on these findings, the patient is at greater risk for the development of

A 22-year-old volleyball player reports the insidious onset of superior and posterior shoulder pain. Radiographs are normal. An MRI scan is shown in Figure 25. What is the most specific physical examination finding?

Figure 52 shows the MRI scan of a 28-year-old baseball pitcher. Examination will most likely reveal which of the following findings?

A 40-year-old woman who is an avid tennis player reports the insidious onset of progressive left shoulder pain for the past 2 months. Examination reveals full range of motion with a positive impingement sign. Strength in the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles is normal, although stress testing is painful. An earlier subacromial cortisone injection provided good, but only temporary relief. An AP radiograph of the left shoulder is shown in Figure 10. Management should now consist of

Figures 25a and 25b show the clinical photographs of a 19-year-old baseball outfielder who has shoulder pain after sliding headfirst into second base. He reports pain while batting, sliding, and catching. Examination reveals a posterior prominence during midranges of forward elevation, which then disappears with a palpable clunk during terminal elevation and abduction. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Figure 30 shows an axial T1-weighted MRI scan of a patient's right shoulder. The arrows are pointing to what normal structure?

A 55-year-old man who works as a carpenter reports chronic right anterior shoulder pain and weakness. Examination reveals 90 degrees of external rotation (with the arm at the side) compared to 45 degrees on the left side. His lift-off examination is positive, along with a positive belly press finding. An MRI scan reveals a chronic, retracted atrophied subscapularis tendon. What is the most appropriate management of his shoulder pain and weakness?

A 47-year-old man has acute right shoulder pain after falling off a ladder. The MRI scan shown in Figure 9 reveals

A 22-year-old volleyball player has atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle. This deficit is the result of entrapment of what nerve?

A 73-year-old man who underwent repair of the left rotator cuff 6 years ago reports good pain relief but notes residual weakness of the left shoulder, especially with overhead tasks. He denies having pain at night and has minimal discomfort with activities of daily living but is dissatisfied with his shoulder strength. Radiographs show an acromiohumeral interval of 2 mm. Appropriate management should consist of

A 52-year-old man has had right shoulder pain in the deltoid region that increases at night for the past 2 months. He denies any history of trauma. Examination reveals mild tenderness over the greater tuberosity, and the Neer and Hawkins impingement signs are positive. AP and outlet lateral radiographs are shown in Figures 24a and 24b. Initial management should consist of

A 21-year-old college football player experiences recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Imaging demonstrates a bony Bankart lesion involving 25% of the anterior glenoid width and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which procedure is most appropriate to stabilize this shoulder and prevent recurrence?

During arthroscopic stabilization for recurrent anterior shoulder instability in a 22-year-old rugby player, the surgeon encounters an ALPSA (Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion) lesion. Which of the following morphologic features distinguishes an ALPSA lesion from a classic Bankart lesion?

A 68-year-old male is evaluated for a massive, retracted rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. The surgeon notes significant fatty infiltration of the muscle bellies on the sagittal T1-weighted MRI. According to the Goutallier classification, which stage represents the critical prognostic threshold where there is an equal amount of fat and muscle within the muscle belly?

A 21-year-old collegiate football player sustains a recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation. A pre-operative 3D CT scan reveals a bipolar bone loss pattern, with an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion and an anterior glenoid bone defect measuring 28% of the glenoid width. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention to prevent further instability?

A 22-year-old collegiate wrestler undergoes an MRI arthrogram after sustaining a traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation. The imaging reveals that the anterior labrum is torn and displaced medially along the glenoid neck, but the anterior periosteum remains intact, forming a sleeve. What is the specific eponym for this lesion?

During the arthroscopic repair of a massive, retracted, U-shaped posterosuperior rotator cuff tear, the surgeon elects to perform margin convergence prior to tendon-to-bone fixation. Which of the following best explains the primary biomechanical advantage of margin convergence?