This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Shoulder & Hip Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 701
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 42-year-old male presents with severe, unprovoked left shoulder pain that awoke him from sleep. The pain lasted intensely for two weeks and then gradually subsided, but was subsequently replaced by profound weakness in shoulder abduction and external rotation. MRI of the shoulder and cervical spine are unremarkable. Electromyography reveals active denervation in the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and deltoid. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Parsonage-Turner syndrome
Explanation
This classic presentation—acute, severe, unrelenting shoulder/arm pain lasting days to weeks followed by patchy weakness and atrophy in the shoulder girdle as the pain subsides—is highly characteristic of Parsonage-Turner syndrome (idiopathic brachial neuritis or neuralgic amyotrophy). It most commonly affects the upper trunk nerves (suprascapular, axillary, long thoracic).
Question 702
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
An elite collegiate baseball pitcher is diagnosed with Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD) after presenting with a significant loss of internal rotation and a total arc of motion that is 20 degrees less than his non-throwing shoulder. Which of the following pathologic changes is the primary driver of this symptomatic internal rotation loss?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Contracture of the posteroinferior capsule
Explanation
Pathologic GIRD is primarily driven by contracture and thickening of the posteroinferior capsule, resulting from repetitive microtrauma during the deceleration phase of throwing. While osseous retroversion of the humeral head alters the arc of motion (shifting it toward external rotation), it preserves thetotal arcof motion. A loss of the total arc of motion (>5-10 degrees) combined with internal rotation deficit indicates true pathologic capsular contracture.
Question 703
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
In a patient undergoing a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with 30% glenoid bone loss, what is the primary mechanism by which this procedure confers anterior stability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The sling effect of the conjoint tendon over the subscapularis in abduction and external rotation
Explanation
The Latarjet procedure provides stability via a 'triple blocking' effect. The most important biomechanical contributor is the dynamic 'sling effect' of the conjoint tendon compressing the lower subscapularis when the arm is abducted and externally rotated.
Question 704
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 23-year-old man reports pain on the superior aspect of his right shoulder with repetitive overhead activities and when lying on his right side. Figure 29 shows an axial MRI scan. What is the most likely diagnosis based on the MRI findings?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Os acromiale
Explanation
Os acromiale represents a failure of fusion of the anterior acromial apophysis and has been reported in approximately 8% of the population. Patients with a symptomatic os acromiale often report impingement-type symptoms with pain over the superior acromion, especially with overhead activities or sleeping. When nonsurgical management is unsuccessful, surgical options include excision, open reduction and internal fixation, and arthroscopic decompression.
Question 705
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old hockey player presents with groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs reveal a cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). Which of the following anatomic abnormalities is the primary driver of this specific type of impingement?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreased femoral head-neck offset
Explanation
Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement is caused by an aspherical femoral head with decreased head-neck offset, often quantified by an elevated alpha angle. Pincer-type FAI is typically caused by acetabular abnormalities such as overcoverage or retroversion.
Question 706
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
In the decision-making process for anterior shoulder instability surgery, glenoid bone loss is a critical factor. At what approximate threshold of anterior glenoid bone loss is an isolated arthroscopic Bankart repair generally considered to have an unacceptably high failure rate, thereby mandating a bony augmentation procedure (e.g., Latarjet)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 20 to 25%
Explanation
Traditional biomechanical and clinical studies have established a 'critical' glenoid bone loss threshold of 20% to 25%. Defects larger than this alter the glenohumeral kinematics and contact pressures significantly, resulting in a high failure rate for soft-tissue isolated repairs (Bankart). In these cases, a bony augmentation procedure, such as a Latarjet (coracoid transfer) or iliac crest bone graft, is mandated. (Note: recent literature debates 'subcritical' bone loss around 13.5%, but 20-25% remains the classic absolute indication for bony augmentation).
Question 707
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 42-year-old male presents with sudden onset of severe, unrelenting right shoulder pain lasting for two weeks, which has now begun to resolve. However, he now notices profound weakness in active external rotation and abduction. Examination demonstrates noticeable atrophy of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. An MRI of the shoulder is negative for a rotator cuff tear. EMG reveals acute denervation potentials in the affected muscles. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Parsonage-Turner syndrome
Explanation
Parsonage-Turner syndrome (neuralgic amyotrophy) classically presents with an acute onset of severe shoulder girdle pain that lasts for 1 to 3 weeks. As the pain subsides, marked weakness and rapid muscle atrophy (typically involving the suprascapular, long thoracic, or axillary nerves) develop. The exact etiology is unknown but is thought to be an immune-mediated or viral neuritis. MRI rules out mechanical tears, and EMG confirms denervation.
Question 708
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 65-year-old female has a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear and poor forward elevation. A latissimus dorsi tendon transfer is proposed. Which of the following physical examination findings is considered a strong contraindication or predictor of poor outcome for an isolated latissimus dorsi transfer?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Positive lift-off test
Explanation
A successful latissimus dorsi tendon transfer for an irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear relies on the presence of an intact subscapularis to maintain the anterior-posterior force couple of the shoulder. A positive lift-off test indicates subscapularis insufficiency, which is a recognized absolute or strong relative contraindication to latissimus dorsi transfer. Doing the transfer in the face of an incompetent subscapularis results in unconstrained superior escape and poor functional outcomes.
Question 709
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old overhead athlete presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Magnetic resonance arthrography demonstrates that the anterior labroligamentous complex is avulsed from the glenoid rim and displaced medially and inferiorly along the glenoid neck. The anterior scapular periosteum remains intact but is stripped from the bone. Which of the following eponymous lesions is described?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. ALPSA lesion
Explanation
The scenario describes an ALPSA (Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion) lesion. Unlike a classic Bankart lesion where the periosteum is torn, in an ALPSA lesion the periosteum is intact but stripped, allowing the avulsed labrum to displace medially and inferiorly on the glenoid neck. A Perthes lesion also has an intact periosteum, but the labrum is not medially displaced.
Question 710
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 32-year-old elite volleyball player presents with insidious onset of vague posterolateral shoulder pain. Physical examination reveals isolated atrophy and weakness of the infraspinatus muscle. Supraspinatus strength and bulk are completely normal. MRI is expected to reveal a paralabral cyst causing nerve compression at which anatomical location?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
Isolated atrophy and weakness of the infraspinatus indicate compression of the suprascapular nerve distal to the innervation of the supraspinatus. This occurs at the spinoglenoid notch, often due to a paralabral cyst originating from a posterior labral tear. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.
Question 711
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with normal supraspinatus bulk and strength. Where is the most likely anatomic location of the nerve compression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus and then passes through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Compression at the suprascapular notch affects both muscles. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch (often due to a paralabral cyst associated with a SLAP tear in overhead athletes) causes isolated infraspinatus atrophy and weakness in external rotation.
Question 712
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan is obtained to calculate the 'glenoid track'. If the patient's Hill-Sachs interval (HSI) is determined to be greater than the calculated glenoid track, what is the most appropriate management alongside an anterior stabilization procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Bankart repair plus a Remplissage procedure or bone block.
Explanation
According to the glenoid track concept, if the Hill-Sachs interval (width of the defect plus the intact bone bridge to the rotator cuff insertion) is greater than the glenoid track, the lesion is 'off-track' and will engage the anterior glenoid rim during abduction/external rotation. An isolated Bankart repair has an unacceptably high failure rate in off-track lesions; a Remplissage (infraspinatus tenodesis into the defect) or a bone block (Latarjet) is indicated.
Question 713
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old contact athlete undergoes a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability associated with 25% glenoid bone loss. The 'sling effect' of this procedure, which contributes significantly to stability at end-range abduction and external rotation, is primarily mediated by which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Conjoint tendon
Explanation
The Latarjet procedure provides stability through a 'triple blocking' effect. The most important dynamic stabilizer is the 'sling effect' created by the conjoint tendon (short head of biceps and coracobrachialis) as it passes through the lower third split of the subscapularis muscle. When the arm is in abduction and external rotation, the conjoint tendon acts as a sling across the anterior-inferior capsule to prevent anterior translation of the humeral head.
Question 714
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 65-year-old female sustains a 3-part proximal humerus fracture involving the surgical neck and the greater tuberosity. The greater tuberosity fragment is characteristically displaced by the primary deforming forces of the attached musculature. In which direction is this fragment typically displaced, and by which muscles?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superiorly and posteriorly by the supraspinatus and infraspinatus
Explanation
In proximal humerus fractures, the greater tuberosity is the attachment site for the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor. When fractured, it is predictably displaced superiorly and posteriorly due to the unopposed pull of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles.
Question 715
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 55-year-old manual laborer with an irreparable, massive posterosuperior rotator cuff tear and intact cartilage undergoes a Superior Capsular Reconstruction (SCR) using a thick dermal allograft. The primary biomechanical goal of the dermal allograft in this procedure is to:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Prevent superior translation of the humeral head during active elevation by static tethering
Explanation
Superior Capsular Reconstruction (SCR) addresses irreparable supraspinatus/infraspinatus tears. The graft is attached medially to the superior glenoid and laterally to the greater tuberosity. Its primary biomechanical function is to serve as a static restraint, recreating the superior capsule to depress the humeral head and prevent its superior translation during active deltoid elevation.
Question 716
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT evaluation reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate to restore stability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Latarjet procedure
Explanation
In cases of anterior shoulder instability with critical glenoid bone loss (>20-25%), a coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure) is the gold standard. Soft tissue procedures alone, such as an arthroscopic Bankart repair, have unacceptably high failure rates in this setting.
Question 717
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 40-year-old female recreational basketball player notes pain deep within her shoulder that occurs with activity. Pain began insidiously 6 months previously. She has completed a physical therapy program, and an intra-articular corticosteroid injection provided excellent temporary relief. Physical examination shows symmetric range of motion of her shoulder. She has a positive O'Brien’s active compression test. There is no pain with cross-arm adduction or tenderness to palpation over the acromioclavicular joint. Resisted abduction is nonpainful and strong. MRI shows increased signal in the substance of the superior labrum, low-grade bursal surface fraying of the supraspinatus, and mild degenerative changes within the acromioclavicular joint. What is the best treatment option?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Biceps tenodesis
Explanation
A 50-year-old man sustained an external rotation traction injury to his right arm. He felt a pop in the anterior aspect of his shoulder associated with immediate pain and swelling. The MRI scan shows a tear of the subscapularis tendon, as shown in Figures 1 and 2. The arrow points to what anatomic structure?
Question 718
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He is diagnosed with internal impingement. Which of the following is the hallmark pathological finding?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Impingement of the articular surface of the posterosuperior rotator cuff against the posterosuperior labrum
Explanation
Internal impingement occurs in the abducted and externally rotated (ABER) position, causing the articular surface of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus to abut against the posterosuperior glenoid labrum. This can lead to partial articular-sided cuff tears and labral fraying.
Question 719
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 35-year-old male presents with isolated weakness in external rotation of his dominant shoulder. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following physical examination findings is most likely?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Normal strength in the initial 30 degrees of shoulder abduction
Explanation
Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus muscle, leading to external rotation weakness. Supraspinatus function remains intact, allowing for normal initial shoulder abduction.
Question 720
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
In a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the crucial 'sling effect' that dynamically stabilizes the anterior shoulder is primarily provided by:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The conjoined tendon acting on the inferior third of the subscapularis
Explanation
The Latarjet procedure provides stability via three mechanisms: the bony block, the capsulolabral repair, and the dynamic 'sling effect.' The sling effect is generated by the conjoined tendon passing through the split lower subscapularis, tensioning it in abduction and external rotation.
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