Question 521
Topic: Shoulder & Hip SportsCorrect Answer & Explanation
. Type II
Practice Set 27 of 142
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Shoulder & Hip Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Type II
A 24-year-old elite baseball pitcher presents with shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI reveals a type II SLAP tear. What physical exam finding is most characteristically associated with this pathology due to posteroinferior capsular contracture?
. Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD)
A 45-year-old weightlifter feels a pop in his anterior shoulder during a heavy bench press. MRI confirms an isolated, full-thickness upper subscapularis tear. Which of the following physical exam tests is considered the most sensitive for a tear of the upper border of the subscapularis?
. Bear hug test
. Latissimus dorsi and teres major transfer to the posterior rotator cuff
A 52-year-old, right hand dominant man comes for evaluation of right shoulder pain that has been intermittently bothering him for three months. The pain is worse with overhead activities. He denies any history of trauma. His range of forward elevation in the plane of the scapula is painful and is limited to 145 degrees, compared to 170 degrees on his unaffected side. A radiograph is shown in Figure A. He saw another orthopedist a month ago, who ordered an MRI, which showed a small, partial thickness supraspinatus tendon tear. He received a subacromial injection of lidocaine at that time which temporarily relieved 90 percent of the pain he felt with passive forward elevation of his shoulder past 90 degrees. Today he is requesting a subacromial injection of platelet rich plasma (PRP). You tell him that with regard to pain, function and range of motion, subacromial injection of PRP: Review Topic

. Will result in improvement in pain but no difference in function or range of motion compared to therapy alone.
. a full-thickness rotator cuff tear.
. arthroscopic repair of the SLAP lesion with suture anchors.
In the absence of developmental dysplasia of the hip, what is the most common cause of osteoarthritis? Review Topic
. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
. Suprascapular nerve entrapment
An active 45-year-old man sustained an acute traumatic anteroinferior dislocation. MRI scans and an arthroscopic view are shown in Figures 36a through

. Greater tuberosity
. Humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament (HAGL) lesion
Figure 1 is the MR image of a 43-year-old man who has left shoulder pain and weakness after a fall. An examination reveals active forward elevation at 120ยฐ and positive Yergason and lift-off test examination findings. Arthroscopy reveals that the articular surfaces of the glenohumeral joint have a normal appearance without significant degenerative changes. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?

. Rotator cuff repair and biceps tenodesis
Which of the following best describes the recommended treatment for a 13-year-old pitcher with a painful chronic stress injury to the proximal humeral physis as confirmed on an MRI scan? Review Topic
. Brief shoulder immobilization followed by avoidance of pitching and throwing for the remainder of the season
A 78-year-old male presents to clinic 4 weeks after left total shoulder arthroplasty. He has not been wearing his sling and reports that he developed increased pain after slipping in the shower. He used the arm to catch himself from falling. On examination, he can flex the shoulder to 70 degrees, limited by pain. Active external rotation with arm at the side is 50 degrees and active internal rotation is 5 degrees. Passive external rotation is to 80 degrees. A radiograph of the left shoulder is shown below in Figure A. What other complaint is the patient most likely to have? Review Topic

. Pain with palpation of the bicipital groove
A 56-year-old laborer sustained a subcoracoid dislocation of the shoulder as a result of falling off a scaffold 3 weeks ago. He now is unable to actively raise his arm and has constant pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Tear of the rotator cuff
A 75-year-old female with a longstanding history of brachial plexus palsy 2 . A 63-year-old male with a 6 month history of shoulder pain and inability to abduct past 30 degrees

. A 67-year-old female with chronic shoulder pain and evidence of significant proximal migration of the humerus on x-ray
. Subscapularis rupture
. Coracoid transfer to the glenoid (Latarjet procedure)
A 51-year-old woman with shoulder pain responds transiently to a subacromial injection and physical therapy exercise program. When her symptoms recur, an arthroscopic subacromial decompression is recommended. During the surgery, a partial-thickness articular-sided supraspinatus tear is noted. The supraspinatus footprint is exposed for 3 mm from the articular margin. The remaining intra-articular structures are normal. Inspection from the bursal surface reveals the tendon to be intact. What is the most appropriate course of management? Review Topic
. Completion of the tear from the bursal surface and rotator cuff repair
Medial dislocation of the long head of the biceps tendon in the shoulder is most commonly caused by a Review Topic
. tear of the subscapularis tendon.