This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Shoulder & Hip Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 2821
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
On a standard AP radiograph of a patient with a suspected posterior dislocation, a dense vertical line is noted on the medial aspect of the humeral head. This 'trough line' represents which of the following pathologic findings?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. An impaction fracture of the anteromedial humeral head
Explanation
The 'trough line' is a dense vertical line seen on an AP radiograph corresponding to the reverse Hill-Sachs lesion. It represents the cortical impaction fracture on the anteromedial aspect of the humeral head as it wedges against the posterior glenoid.
Question 2822
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
The classic (original) McLaughlin procedure, utilized for the treatment of moderate-sized anteromedial humeral head defects, involves the transfer of which of the following structures into the bony defect?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subscapularis tendon
Explanation
The classic McLaughlin procedure involves detaching the subscapularis tendon and transferring it into the anteromedial humeral head defect. The modified McLaughlin improves upon this by transferring the lesser tuberosity with the attached tendon to achieve bone-to-bone healing.
Question 2823
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old weightlifter presents with posterior shoulder instability. MRI reveals a POLPSA lesion. Which of the following accurately describes the pathology of a POLPSA lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. An avulsion of the posterior labrum with an intact periosteal sleeve
Explanation
POLPSA stands for Posterior Labrocapsular Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion. It is characterized by the posterior labrum being avulsed from the glenoid rim along with an intact sleeve of periosteum, leading to a redundant posterior recess.
Question 2824
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
Bilateral posterior shoulder dislocations are a rare clinical entity but are highly specific to a particular mechanism of injury. Which of the following etiologies is most classically associated with simultaneous bilateral posterior dislocations?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Violent seizures or electrocution
Explanation
Bilateral posterior shoulder dislocations are classically caused by violent muscle contractions, such as those occurring during generalized seizures or electrocution. The strong internal rotators (latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major, subscapularis) overpower the weaker external rotators.
Question 2825
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 32-year-old male sustains a locked posterior shoulder dislocation during a seizure. CT imaging reveals an anteromedial humeral head impaction fracture involving 35% of the articular surface. The glenoid is completely intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect
Explanation
For reverse Hill-Sachs lesions involving 20% to 40% of the articular surface, the modified McLaughlin procedure (transfer of the lesser tuberosity and subscapularis into the defect) is indicated to prevent engagement. Defects greater than 40-50% generally require arthroplasty.
Question 2826
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 26-year-old male volleyball player presents with insidious onset posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals a posterosuperior labral tear with a multiloculated cyst occupying the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following physical examination findings is most likely present?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Atrophy of the infraspinatus only
Explanation
A paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch typically compresses the suprascapular nerve after it has innervated the supraspinatus. This leads to isolated denervation and atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle.
Question 2827
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 15-year-old female presents with the ability to spontaneously dislocate her shoulder posteriorly without pain. She demonstrates this by bringing her arm into elevation and internal rotation, then easily reduces it. She has no history of trauma. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Physical therapy focusing on periscapular biofeedback
Explanation
Volitional, non-traumatic posterior shoulder instability is best managed non-operatively. Physical therapy incorporating biofeedback to retrain asynchronous periscapular and rotator cuff muscle firing is the standard of care.
Question 2828
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 25-year-old rugby player has recurrent posterior shoulder instability despite a previous arthroscopic posterior labral repair. Preoperative CT imaging reveals excessive glenoid retroversion of 22 degrees and 25% posterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Open posterior bone block augmentation
Explanation
Open posterior bone block augmentation (e.g., using distal tibia or iliac crest) is indicated for recurrent posterior instability with significant posterior glenoid bone loss (>20%) or severe glenoid retroversion (>15 degrees).
Question 2829
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During a physical examination for posterior instability, the examiner performs the Kim test to identify a concealed posteroinferior labral tear. Which combination of joint positions and forces best isolates the posteroinferior labrum during this specific test?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 120 degrees elevation, axial loading, and a posteroinferiorly directed force
Explanation
The Kim test isolates the posteroinferior labrum by elevating the arm to 120 degrees, applying an axial load, and directing a posteroinferior force while horizontally adducting the arm.
Question 2830
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old male undergoes an open posterior capsulorrhaphy for refractory posterior shoulder instability. Postoperatively, he develops a severe limitation in forward elevation, cross-body adduction, and internal rotation. What is the most likely iatrogenic cause of this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Overtightening of the posterior capsule
Explanation
Overtightening the posterior capsule during open or arthroscopic stabilization can lead to obligate anterior translation of the humeral head and significantly restrict internal rotation, cross-body adduction, and forward elevation.
Question 2831
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
When performing an arthroscopic posterior Bankart repair, the surgeon needs an optimal trajectory to place suture anchors at the 7 o'clock position in a right shoulder. Which accessory portal is most commonly utilized to achieve the best approach angle for this region?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterolateral portal (Port of Wilmington)
Explanation
The posterolateral portal (often called the Port of Wilmington) provides the ideal deadman's angle for anchor insertion into the posteroinferior glenoid (7 o'clock in a right shoulder, 5 o'clock in a left shoulder).
Question 2832
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 27-year-old military paratrooper suffers from recurrent posterior shoulder subluxations. Imaging demonstrates a posterior labral tear, 5% posterior glenoid bone loss, and 5 degrees of glenoid retroversion. After failing 6 months of non-operative management, what is the surgical treatment of choice?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic posterior capsulolabral repair
Explanation
In the absence of significant glenoid retroversion (<10-15 degrees) or substantial bone loss (<10-20%), soft-tissue stabilization via an arthroscopic posterior capsulolabral repair is the gold standard surgical treatment.
Question 2833
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
Which imaging modality and specific measurement technique represent the gold standard for quantifying glenoid retroversion in a patient evaluated for recurrent posterior shoulder instability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 2D CT axial cuts utilizing the Friedman line
Explanation
Glenoid version is most accurately measured on 2D axial CT images using the Friedman line, which connects the medial border of the scapula to the center of the glenoid vault.
Question 2834
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
The Neer modification of the classic McLaughlin procedure is commonly used for chronic posterior shoulder dislocations with large anteromedial humeral head defects. This modification specifically involves the transfer of which anatomical structure into the defect?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The lesser tuberosity with the attached subscapularis tendon
Explanation
The classic McLaughlin procedure transfers the subscapularis tendon directly into the reverse Hill-Sachs defect. The Neer modification improves upon this by transferring the lesser tuberosity bone block along with the attached subscapularis tendon, providing bone-to-bone healing.
Question 2835
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 30-year-old male undergoes an open posterior capsulorrhaphy for recurrent posterior shoulder instability. Postoperatively, he complains of significant restriction in his range of motion, significantly affecting his activities of daily living. Overtightening of the posterior capsule is most likely to restrict which of the following motions?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Internal rotation in 90 degrees of abduction
Explanation
The posterior capsule restricts internal rotation and cross-body adduction. Overtightening during posterior stabilization primarily limits internal rotation, particularly when the arm is positioned in 90 degrees of abduction or forward flexion.
Question 2836
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 55-year-old male presents with chronic right shoulder pain 4 months after a prolonged seizure. Clinical examination reveals a rigid block to external rotation. Radiographs confirm a locked posterior dislocation. Which of the following findings is the strongest indication for proceeding with shoulder arthroplasty rather than a joint-preserving reconstruction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reverse Hill-Sachs defect involving 45% of the articular surface
Explanation
Arthroplasty is indicated in chronic posterior dislocations when the reverse Hill-Sachs defect involves greater than 40% of the humeral head articular surface, or when there is advanced secondary glenohumeral osteoarthritis. Smaller defects (20-40%) without arthritis are amenable to joint-preserving procedures like a lesser tuberosity transfer.
Question 2837
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A surgeon is performing an arthroscopic posterior stabilization for a reverse Bankart lesion. To achieve the most optimal trajectory for suture anchor insertion into the posteroinferior glenoid rim (7 o'clock to 9 o'clock positions), which of the following arthroscopic portals should be utilized?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Accessory posteroinferior portal
Explanation
The accessory posteroinferior portal (often called the 7 o'clock portal) is placed approximately 2 cm inferior to the standard posterior portal. It provides the ideal angle of approach for anchor placement in the posteroinferior quadrant, avoiding medial skiving of the anchor.
Question 2838
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 6-year-old child with a history of an obstetric brachial plexus palsy (Erb's palsy) presents with an internal rotation contracture of the shoulder. Imaging reveals progressive posterior subluxation of the humeral head and early glenoid dysplasia. What is the most critical initial surgical intervention to halt the progression of this joint deformity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subscapularis release or lengthening
Explanation
In obstetric brachial plexus palsy, muscle imbalance characterized by strong internal rotators and weak external rotators leads to an internal rotation contracture and secondary posterior glenohumeral dysplasia. Early release or lengthening of the subscapularis (with or without pectoralis major release) is critical to restore balance and allow glenoid remodeling.
Question 2839
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 42-year-old male undergoes surgery for a locked posterior shoulder dislocation with a 30% anteromedial humeral head defect. The surgeon performs an open reduction and transfers both the subscapularis tendon and the lesser tuberosity into the articular defect. Which eponymous procedure does this describe?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Modified McLaughlin procedure
Explanation
The modified McLaughlin procedure (described by Neer) involves the transfer of the lesser tuberosity along with the attached subscapularis tendon into the reverse Hill-Sachs defect. This provides reliable bone-to-bone healing, improving upon the original McLaughlin procedure which transferred only the subscapularis tendon.
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