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Question 2821

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

On a standard AP radiograph of a patient with a suspected posterior dislocation, a dense vertical line is noted on the medial aspect of the humeral head. This 'trough line' represents which of the following pathologic findings?

. A fracture of the posterior glenoid rim
. An impaction fracture of the anteromedial humeral head
. A calcified posterior labrum
. An avulsion of the lesser tuberosity
. A vertical split in the subscapularis tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. An impaction fracture of the anteromedial humeral head


Explanation

The 'trough line' is a dense vertical line seen on an AP radiograph corresponding to the reverse Hill-Sachs lesion. It represents the cortical impaction fracture on the anteromedial aspect of the humeral head as it wedges against the posterior glenoid.

Question 2822

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The classic (original) McLaughlin procedure, utilized for the treatment of moderate-sized anteromedial humeral head defects, involves the transfer of which of the following structures into the bony defect?

. Infraspinatus tendon
. Subscapularis tendon
. Lesser tuberosity
. Coracoid process
. Long head of the biceps tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis tendon


Explanation

The classic McLaughlin procedure involves detaching the subscapularis tendon and transferring it into the anteromedial humeral head defect. The modified McLaughlin improves upon this by transferring the lesser tuberosity with the attached tendon to achieve bone-to-bone healing.

Question 2823

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old weightlifter presents with posterior shoulder instability. MRI reveals a POLPSA lesion. Which of the following accurately describes the pathology of a POLPSA lesion?
. A purely cartilaginous defect of the posterior glenoid
. An avulsion of the posterior labrum with an intact periosteal sleeve
. A posterior labral tear combined with a SLAP tear
. An impaction fracture of the posterior humeral head
. A complete rupture of the posterior capsule from the humeral insertion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. An avulsion of the posterior labrum with an intact periosteal sleeve


Explanation

POLPSA stands for Posterior Labrocapsular Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion. It is characterized by the posterior labrum being avulsed from the glenoid rim along with an intact sleeve of periosteum, leading to a redundant posterior recess.

Question 2824

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Bilateral posterior shoulder dislocations are a rare clinical entity but are highly specific to a particular mechanism of injury. Which of the following etiologies is most classically associated with simultaneous bilateral posterior dislocations?

. Direct blow to the anterior shoulders
. Motor vehicle collision holding a steering wheel
. Violent seizures or electrocution
. Fall on bilaterally outstretched hands
. Heavy weightlifting (e.g., bench press)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Violent seizures or electrocution


Explanation

Bilateral posterior shoulder dislocations are classically caused by violent muscle contractions, such as those occurring during generalized seizures or electrocution. The strong internal rotators (latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major, subscapularis) overpower the weaker external rotators.

Question 2825

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 32-year-old male sustains a locked posterior shoulder dislocation during a seizure. CT imaging reveals an anteromedial humeral head impaction fracture involving 35% of the articular surface. The glenoid is completely intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Closed reduction and spica cast immobilization
. Arthroscopic posterior capsulolabral repair
. Transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect
. Shoulder hemiarthroplasty
. Total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect


Explanation

For reverse Hill-Sachs lesions involving 20% to 40% of the articular surface, the modified McLaughlin procedure (transfer of the lesser tuberosity and subscapularis into the defect) is indicated to prevent engagement. Defects greater than 40-50% generally require arthroplasty.

Question 2826

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 26-year-old male volleyball player presents with insidious onset posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals a posterosuperior labral tear with a multiloculated cyst occupying the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following physical examination findings is most likely present?

. Atrophy of both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus
. Atrophy of the infraspinatus only
. Atrophy of the teres minor
. Medial winging of the scapula
. Decreased sensation over the lateral deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Atrophy of the infraspinatus only


Explanation

A paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch typically compresses the suprascapular nerve after it has innervated the supraspinatus. This leads to isolated denervation and atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle.

Question 2827

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 15-year-old female presents with the ability to spontaneously dislocate her shoulder posteriorly without pain. She demonstrates this by bringing her arm into elevation and internal rotation, then easily reduces it. She has no history of trauma. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Arthroscopic posterior capsulolabral repair
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Glenoid derotational osteotomy
. Physical therapy focusing on periscapular biofeedback
. Botulinum toxin injection to the pectoralis major

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Physical therapy focusing on periscapular biofeedback


Explanation

Volitional, non-traumatic posterior shoulder instability is best managed non-operatively. Physical therapy incorporating biofeedback to retrain asynchronous periscapular and rotator cuff muscle firing is the standard of care.

Question 2828

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 25-year-old rugby player has recurrent posterior shoulder instability despite a previous arthroscopic posterior labral repair. Preoperative CT imaging reveals excessive glenoid retroversion of 22 degrees and 25% posterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Revision arthroscopic posterior capsulorrhaphy
. Open posterior bone block augmentation
. Standard Latarjet procedure
. McLaughlin procedure
. Latissimus dorsi transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open posterior bone block augmentation


Explanation

Open posterior bone block augmentation (e.g., using distal tibia or iliac crest) is indicated for recurrent posterior instability with significant posterior glenoid bone loss (>20%) or severe glenoid retroversion (>15 degrees).

Question 2829

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During a physical examination for posterior instability, the examiner performs the Kim test to identify a concealed posteroinferior labral tear. Which combination of joint positions and forces best isolates the posteroinferior labrum during this specific test?

. 90 degrees abduction, external rotation, and anteriorly directed force
. 120 degrees elevation, axial loading, and a posteroinferiorly directed force
. Arm at side, neutral rotation, and inferior distraction force
. 90 degrees flexion, internal rotation, and posterior force
. Maximal external rotation, abduction, and valgus stress

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 120 degrees elevation, axial loading, and a posteroinferiorly directed force


Explanation

The Kim test isolates the posteroinferior labrum by elevating the arm to 120 degrees, applying an axial load, and directing a posteroinferior force while horizontally adducting the arm.

Question 2830

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old male undergoes an open posterior capsulorrhaphy for refractory posterior shoulder instability. Postoperatively, he develops a severe limitation in forward elevation, cross-body adduction, and internal rotation. What is the most likely iatrogenic cause of this complication?

. Overtightening of the posterior capsule
. Failure to repair the subscapularis tendon
. Axillary nerve neuropraxia
. Suprascapular nerve entrapment
. Undersizing of a posterior bone block

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Overtightening of the posterior capsule


Explanation

Overtightening the posterior capsule during open or arthroscopic stabilization can lead to obligate anterior translation of the humeral head and significantly restrict internal rotation, cross-body adduction, and forward elevation.

Question 2831

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

When performing an arthroscopic posterior Bankart repair, the surgeon needs an optimal trajectory to place suture anchors at the 7 o'clock position in a right shoulder. Which accessory portal is most commonly utilized to achieve the best approach angle for this region?

. Standard anterior portal
. Anterosuperior portal
. Posterolateral portal (Port of Wilmington)
. Neviaser portal
. Standard posterior portal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral portal (Port of Wilmington)


Explanation

The posterolateral portal (often called the Port of Wilmington) provides the ideal deadman's angle for anchor insertion into the posteroinferior glenoid (7 o'clock in a right shoulder, 5 o'clock in a left shoulder).

Question 2832

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 27-year-old military paratrooper suffers from recurrent posterior shoulder subluxations. Imaging demonstrates a posterior labral tear, 5% posterior glenoid bone loss, and 5 degrees of glenoid retroversion. After failing 6 months of non-operative management, what is the surgical treatment of choice?

. Posterior opening wedge glenoid osteotomy
. Arthroscopic posterior capsulolabral repair
. Posterior iliac crest bone graft
. Lesser tuberosity transfer
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic posterior capsulolabral repair


Explanation

In the absence of significant glenoid retroversion (<10-15 degrees) or substantial bone loss (<10-20%), soft-tissue stabilization via an arthroscopic posterior capsulolabral repair is the gold standard surgical treatment.

Question 2833

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which imaging modality and specific measurement technique represent the gold standard for quantifying glenoid retroversion in a patient evaluated for recurrent posterior shoulder instability?

. Axillary lateral radiograph using the Maurice index
. MRI using the posterior labral depth measurement
. 2D CT axial cuts utilizing the Friedman line
. 3D CT surface rendering of the humeral head
. True AP radiograph using the critical shoulder angle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2D CT axial cuts utilizing the Friedman line


Explanation

Glenoid version is most accurately measured on 2D axial CT images using the Friedman line, which connects the medial border of the scapula to the center of the glenoid vault.

Question 2834

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The Neer modification of the classic McLaughlin procedure is commonly used for chronic posterior shoulder dislocations with large anteromedial humeral head defects. This modification specifically involves the transfer of which anatomical structure into the defect?

. The subscapularis tendon only
. The lesser tuberosity with the attached subscapularis tendon
. The infraspinatus tendon
. The greater tuberosity with the supraspinatus tendon
. The coracoid process with the conjoint tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The lesser tuberosity with the attached subscapularis tendon


Explanation

The classic McLaughlin procedure transfers the subscapularis tendon directly into the reverse Hill-Sachs defect. The Neer modification improves upon this by transferring the lesser tuberosity bone block along with the attached subscapularis tendon, providing bone-to-bone healing.

Question 2835

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old male undergoes an open posterior capsulorrhaphy for recurrent posterior shoulder instability. Postoperatively, he complains of significant restriction in his range of motion, significantly affecting his activities of daily living. Overtightening of the posterior capsule is most likely to restrict which of the following motions?

. External rotation at neutral
. Internal rotation in 90 degrees of abduction
. External rotation in 90 degrees of abduction
. Internal rotation with the arm resting at the side
. Forward elevation in the sagittal plane

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Internal rotation in 90 degrees of abduction


Explanation

The posterior capsule restricts internal rotation and cross-body adduction. Overtightening during posterior stabilization primarily limits internal rotation, particularly when the arm is positioned in 90 degrees of abduction or forward flexion.

Question 2836

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old male presents with chronic right shoulder pain 4 months after a prolonged seizure. Clinical examination reveals a rigid block to external rotation. Radiographs confirm a locked posterior dislocation. Which of the following findings is the strongest indication for proceeding with shoulder arthroplasty rather than a joint-preserving reconstruction?

. Patient age over 50 years
. Duration of dislocation greater than 3 months
. Reverse Hill-Sachs defect involving 45% of the articular surface
. Presence of a concomitant posterior Bankart lesion
. Recurrent seizure disorder

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse Hill-Sachs defect involving 45% of the articular surface


Explanation

Arthroplasty is indicated in chronic posterior dislocations when the reverse Hill-Sachs defect involves greater than 40% of the humeral head articular surface, or when there is advanced secondary glenohumeral osteoarthritis. Smaller defects (20-40%) without arthritis are amenable to joint-preserving procedures like a lesser tuberosity transfer.

Question 2837

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A surgeon is performing an arthroscopic posterior stabilization for a reverse Bankart lesion. To achieve the most optimal trajectory for suture anchor insertion into the posteroinferior glenoid rim (7 o'clock to 9 o'clock positions), which of the following arthroscopic portals should be utilized?

. Standard posterior portal
. Posterolateral portal (Port of Wilmington)
. Anterior mid-glenoid portal
. Accessory posteroinferior portal
. Suprascapular portal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Accessory posteroinferior portal


Explanation

The accessory posteroinferior portal (often called the 7 o'clock portal) is placed approximately 2 cm inferior to the standard posterior portal. It provides the ideal angle of approach for anchor placement in the posteroinferior quadrant, avoiding medial skiving of the anchor.

Question 2838

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 6-year-old child with a history of an obstetric brachial plexus palsy (Erb's palsy) presents with an internal rotation contracture of the shoulder. Imaging reveals progressive posterior subluxation of the humeral head and early glenoid dysplasia. What is the most critical initial surgical intervention to halt the progression of this joint deformity?

. Pectoralis major tendon transfer
. Subscapularis release or lengthening
. Infraspinatus lengthening
. Anterior capsulorrhaphy
. Biceps tenodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis release or lengthening


Explanation

In obstetric brachial plexus palsy, muscle imbalance characterized by strong internal rotators and weak external rotators leads to an internal rotation contracture and secondary posterior glenohumeral dysplasia. Early release or lengthening of the subscapularis (with or without pectoralis major release) is critical to restore balance and allow glenoid remodeling.

Question 2839

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 42-year-old male undergoes surgery for a locked posterior shoulder dislocation with a 30% anteromedial humeral head defect. The surgeon performs an open reduction and transfers both the subscapularis tendon and the lesser tuberosity into the articular defect. Which eponymous procedure does this describe?

. Putti-Platt procedure
. Magnuson-Stack procedure
. McLaughlin procedure
. Modified McLaughlin procedure
. Latarjet procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Modified McLaughlin procedure


Explanation

The modified McLaughlin procedure (described by Neer) involves the transfer of the lesser tuberosity along with the attached subscapularis tendon into the reverse Hill-Sachs defect. This provides reliable bone-to-bone healing, improving upon the original McLaughlin procedure which transferred only the subscapularis tendon.