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Question 2721

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT arthrogram demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with Remplissage
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone
. Latarjet procedure
. Capsular shift
. Putti-Platt procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latarjet procedure


Explanation

Glenoid bone loss greater than 20-25% in a contact athlete is an absolute indication for a bony augmentation procedure like the Latarjet. Soft tissue repairs alone have an unacceptably high failure rate in this scenario.

Question 2722

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old male hockey player presents with groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs reveal an aspherical femoral head-neck junction with an alpha angle of 70 degrees. During hip arthroscopy for this 'cam-type' femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), where is the characteristic articular cartilage damage (chondral delamination) most likely to be found?

. Posteroinferior acetabulum
. Anterosuperior acetabulum
. Medial fovea centralis
. Anterior femoral head
. Posteromedial femoral neck

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterosuperior acetabulum


Explanation

Cam FAI is caused by an abnormally shaped femoral head-neck junction (alpha angle >55 degrees) engaging the acetabulum during flexion and internal rotation. This creates massive shear forces at the anterosuperior acetabular rim, classically leading to chondral delamination from the subchondral bone, peeling inward from the labro-chondral junction in the anterosuperior quadrant.

Question 2723

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 13-year-old obese boy undergoes in situ single-screw fixation for a stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Which of the following is the most common long-term complication associated with the residual deformity of the proximal femur in this condition?

. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
. Chondrolysis
. Slip progression despite hardware
. Femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)
. Deep infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)


Explanation

Following in-situ pinning of a SCFE, the uncorrected prominent anterior metaphysis frequently leads to cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). This represents the most common long-term complication and the primary cause of early-onset osteoarthritis in these patients.

Question 2724

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old male presents with shoulder pain and weakness following a fall. The surgeon wishes to isolate and test the subscapularis tendon. Which of the following physical examination tests is most specific for identifying a subscapularis tear?

. Jobe's test (Empty can test)
. Hornblower's sign
. Lift-off test (Gerber's test)
. Neer impingement sign
. O'Brien's active compression test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lift-off test (Gerber's test)


Explanation

The Lift-off test (Gerber's test) and the Belly-press test are highly specific for evaluating the integrity of the subscapularis. Jobe's test evaluates the supraspinatus, Hornblower's evaluates the teres minor, and O'Brien's evaluates the labrum/AC joint.

Question 2725

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Biomechanical models of the rotator cuff emphasize load transmission properties. Burkhart et al. described a thick, band-like structure composed of bundled collagen fibers running perpendicular to the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons. This structure transmits load to the humerus and stress-shields the thinner, more avascular crescent region. What is this structure called?

. Rotator cable
. Rotator interval
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Superior glenohumeral ligament
. Transverse humeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rotator cable


Explanation

The 'rotator cable' is a thick, macroscopic bundle of fibers that courses perpendicular to the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendon fibers. It acts biomechanically like a suspension bridge, transmitting forces from the muscle belly to the humerus while shielding the thinner, often avascular tissue lateral to it, known as the 'rotator crescent'. This explains why some patients with crescent tears maintain excellent function.

Question 2726

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

An 18-year-old contact athlete undergoes surgical stabilization for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Preoperative imaging reveals 15% glenoid bone loss and a large, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. An arthroscopic Bankart repair with a remplissage procedure is performed. Which structure is tenodesed into the humeral head defect during the remplissage?

. Infraspinatus tendon and posterior capsule
. Teres minor tendon
. Subscapularis tendon
. Supraspinatus tendon
. Long head of the biceps tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Infraspinatus tendon and posterior capsule


Explanation

The remplissage procedure is an adjunctive technique used for engaging Hill-Sachs lesions to prevent the defect from engaging the anterior glenoid rim. It involves tenodesis of the infraspinatus tendon and the posterior capsule into the bony defect on the posterolateral humeral head.

Question 2727

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In the setting of anterior shoulder instability, a 'bony Bankart' lesion is identified on CT scan. What percentage of glenoid bone loss is generally considered the critical threshold at which an arthroscopic soft-tissue repair has an unacceptably high failure rate, thereby necessitating a bony augmentation procedure?

. 5-10%
. 10-15%
. 20-25%
. 35-40%
. 50-60%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 20-25%


Explanation

Critical glenoid bone loss in anterior shoulder instability is classically cited as 20% to 25% of the inferior glenoid width. Defect sizes above this threshold result in a biomechanically unstable joint (the 'inverted pear' glenoid) and have unacceptably high failure rates with arthroscopic Bankart repair alone.

Question 2728

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old male presents with a locked shoulder after a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. The arm is internally rotated, and external rotation is mechanically blocked. An axillary radiograph confirms a posterior glenohumeral dislocation. What impaction fracture is typically associated with this injury?

. Hill-Sachs lesion
. Reverse Hill-Sachs lesion
. Bankart lesion
. Bony Bankart lesion
. Coracoid fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse Hill-Sachs lesion


Explanation

A reverse Hill-Sachs lesion is an impaction fracture of the anteromedial humeral head. It occurs when the humeral head becomes engaged on the posterior glenoid rim during a posterior shoulder dislocation.

Question 2729

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A patient sustains a massive rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. Atrophy and fatty infiltration of the infraspinatus muscle are most directly associated with retraction of the tendon beyond which anatomical landmark?

. Acromioclavicular joint
. Glenoid rim
. Coracoid process
. Spine of the scapula
. Greater tuberosity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Glenoid rim


Explanation

Retraction of the supraspinatus/infraspinatus tendons to the level of the glenoid rim places excessive traction on the suprascapular nerve as it passes through the spinoglenoid notch. This traction neuropathy can lead to irreversible fatty infiltration and muscle atrophy.

Question 2730

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 60-year-old male presents with shoulder pain and weakness. On physical examination, the patient has a positive 'horn blower's' sign. This finding is most specific for pathology involving which of the following muscles?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis
. Teres major

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teres minor


Explanation

The horn blower's sign evaluates for teres minor weakness or a massive rotator cuff tear involving the teres minor. It is positive when the patient is unable to maintain external rotation with the arm abducted to 90 degrees, causing the arm to fall into internal rotation, often forcing the patient to elevate their arm to bring their hand to their mouth.

Question 2731

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old male rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. A pre-operative 3D CT scan demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair
. Coracoid process transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Arthroscopic remplissage alone
. Putti-Platt procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coracoid process transfer (Latarjet procedure)


Explanation

Anterior glenoid bone loss greater than 20-25% in a contact athlete (referred to as a critical bone defect) is a contraindication to an isolated arthroscopic or open soft-tissue Bankart repair due to unacceptably high recurrence rates. A bony augmentation procedure, most commonly the Latarjet procedure (transfer of the coracoid process with the attached conjoined tendon to the anterior glenoid), is the gold standard for restoring stability in this scenario.

Question 2732

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During preoperative planning for a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the concept of the 'glenoid track' is evaluated. A Hill-Sachs lesion is considered 'off-track' if it:

. Is located entirely within the medial margin of the glenoid track
. Extends medial to the medial margin of the glenoid track
. Involves less than 15% of the humeral head articular surface
. Is associated with a bony Bankart lesion less than 10% of the glenoid width
. Does not engage the anterior glenoid rim with the arm in adduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extends medial to the medial margin of the glenoid track


Explanation

An 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesion extends medial to the medial margin of the glenoid track. This makes it an engaging lesion during abduction and external rotation, which often requires a concurrent Remplissage procedure in addition to Bankart repair.

Question 2733

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old collegiate wrestler suffers his fourth anterior shoulder dislocation. Advanced imaging reveals an anterior inferior glenoid bone defect measuring 28% of the glenoid width. Which of the following surgical procedures is considered the gold standard to restore stability in this patient?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Arthroscopic Remplissage
. Latarjet procedure
. Putti-Platt procedure
. Open inferior capsular shift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latarjet procedure


Explanation

In the setting of recurrent anterior shoulder instability with critical anterior glenoid bone loss (typically greater than 20-25%), soft tissue repairs like a Bankart repair have unacceptably high failure rates. The Latarjet procedure (coracoid process transfer) is required to restore the bony architecture and provide a dynamic sling effect.

Question 2734

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. A pre-operative CT scan reveals an inverted pear-shaped glenoid with 30% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open capsular shift
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Remplissage procedure
. Slap repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)


Explanation

In the setting of recurrent anterior shoulder instability with critical glenoid bone loss (greater than 25%), soft tissue repairs alone have a high failure rate. A bony augmentation procedure, such as the Latarjet (coracoid transfer), is required to restore glenoid width and stability.

Question 2735

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player with recurrent anterior shoulder instability undergoes advanced imaging. A 3D CT scan reveals 25 percent anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors
. Arthroscopic remplissage
. Open capsular shift
. Coracoid transfer to the anterior glenoid (Latarjet)
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coracoid transfer to the anterior glenoid (Latarjet)


Explanation

In patients with anterior shoulder instability and significant glenoid bone loss (typically greater than 20 to 25 percent), soft tissue stabilization alone has an unacceptably high failure rate. A bony augmentation procedure, such as the Latarjet coracoid transfer, is indicated.

Question 2736

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A patient sustains a high-energy motorcycle crash and suffers a traction injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus (Erb-Duchenne palsy). Which of the following clinical presentations is expected?

. Claw hand deformity with isolated intrinsic muscle wasting
. Loss of shoulder abduction and external rotation, with the arm held in adduction and internal rotation
. Inability to extend the wrist and digits with sensory loss over the dorsal first web space
. Winged scapula due to paralysis of the serratus anterior
. Horner's syndrome with complete flaccid paralysis of the upper limb

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of shoulder abduction and external rotation, with the arm held in adduction and internal rotation


Explanation

An upper trunk brachial plexus injury (C5-C6), or Erb's palsy, typically results in paralysis of the deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and biceps. This causes the limb to be held in the classic 'waiter's tip' posture: shoulder adducted and internally rotated, elbow extended, and forearm pronated.

Question 2737

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old overhead athlete presents with chronic anterior shoulder instability. MRI reveals a Bankart lesion and a significant engaging Hill-Sachs defect. The surgeon performs an arthroscopic Bankart repair with a Remplissage procedure. Which structure is tenodesed into the Hill-Sachs defect during a Remplissage?

. Long head of the biceps tendon
. Subscapularis tendon
. Infraspinatus tendon
. Supraspinatus tendon
. Teres major tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Infraspinatus tendon


Explanation

The Remplissage procedure (French for 'to fill') involves a capsulotenodesis where the posterior joint capsule and the infraspinatus tendon are secured into the Hill-Sachs defect on the posterolateral humeral head. This renders the bony defect extra-articular, preventing it from engaging the anterior glenoid rim during abduction and external rotation.

Question 2738

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with 30% glenoid bone loss, the coracoid process is transferred to the anterior glenoid. Which structure attached to the transferred coracoid provides a dynamic "sling" effect?

. Pectoralis minor
. Short head of the biceps and coracobrachialis
. Long head of the triceps
. Subscapularis
. Coracoacromial ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Short head of the biceps and coracobrachialis


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure transfers the coracoid process with the attached conjoined tendon (short head of the biceps and coracobrachialis). This tendon acts as a dynamic sling across the inferior subscapularis and anterior-inferior capsule when the arm is abducted and externally rotated.

Question 2739

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old overhead athlete presents with posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. An MRI shows a paralabral cyst. Where is the cyst most likely located to produce these specific clinical findings?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Rotator interval

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

Isolated external rotation weakness indicates isolated infraspinatus denervation. The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus and then passes through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus, whereas compression at the suprascapular notch affects both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 2740

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The "peel-back" mechanism in overhead-throwing athletes primarily contributes to the pathogenesis of which of the following shoulder lesions?

. Anterior Bankart lesion
. Type II SLAP tear
. Posterior labral tear
. Subscapularis tendon tear
. Coracoclavicular ligament rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type II SLAP tear


Explanation

The "peel-back" mechanism occurs during the late cocking phase of throwing (maximum abduction and external rotation). This shifts the biceps vector posteriorly, generating a torsional force that peels the superior labrum off the glenoid rim, creating a Type II SLAP tear.