This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Shoulder & Hip Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 2661
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. Forward elevation and internal rotation strength are normal. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Where is this cyst most likely located?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
A cyst at the spinoglenoid notch compresses the suprascapular nerve after it has already given off its motor branches to the supraspinatus, resulting in isolated denervation and weakness of the infraspinatus (manifesting as an external rotation deficit). Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.
Question 2662
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague shoulder pain and decreased throwing velocity. Physical examination reveals a 25-degree loss of glenohumeral internal rotation compared to the contralateral side, but total arc of motion is symmetric. What is the primary pathophysiologic cause of this internal rotation deficit?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior capsular contracture
Explanation
Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) in overhead athletes is classically caused by contracture and thickening of the posteroinferior capsule. This forces the humeral head posterosuperiorly during the late cocking phase, predisposing the athlete to internal impingement and SLAP tears. Sleeper stretches are the mainstay of initial treatment.
Question 2663
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A latissimus dorsi tendon transfer is being considered for a 55-year-old male with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. Which of the following preoperative findings is considered an absolute contraindication to performing this specific tendon transfer?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Irreparable subscapularis tendon tear
Explanation
A latissimus dorsi transfer depends heavily on an intact anterior force couple to dynamically stabilize the humeral head in the glenoid during arm elevation. Therefore, an irreparable subscapularis tear is considered an absolute contraindication, as the joint will remain uncoupled and unbalanced, leading to inevitable failure of the transfer.
Question 2664
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 45-year-old man with a history of seizures presents with a chronic, locked posterior shoulder dislocation. A modified McLaughlin procedure is planned. During this procedure, which anatomic structure is transferred into the reverse Hill-Sachs defect to provide stability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lesser tuberosity with the attached subscapularis tendon
Explanation
The original McLaughlin procedure involves detaching the subscapularis tendon and transferring it into the reverse Hill-Sachs (anteromedial humeral head) defect to prevent it from engaging the posterior glenoid rim. ThemodifiedMcLaughlin procedure, popularized by Neer, involves an osteotomy of the lesser tuberosity with the subscapularis attached, transferring the bone block into the defect for superior bone-to-bone healing.
Question 2665
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old elite volleyball player presents with insidious onset of right shoulder weakness. Physical examination reveals normal forward elevation and abduction, but isolated weakness in external rotation. There is prominent atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa, while the supraspinatus fossa is well-preserved. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Where is the cyst most likely located?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
The suprascapular nerve innervates both the supraspinatus and the infraspinatus muscles. The motor branch to the supraspinatus takes off after the nerve passes through the suprascapular notch but before it reaches the spinoglenoid notch. Entrapment of the nerve at the spinoglenoid notch (often due to a paralabral cyst associated with a posterior labral tear) results in isolated denervation of the infraspinatus, sparing the supraspinatus.
Question 2666
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 45-year-old male presents with anterior shoulder pain characterized by a positive 'coracoid impingement test' (pain elicited with the arm in forward flexion, internal rotation, and adduction). Advanced imaging measures the coracohumeral distance to be 4 mm. Pathology involving which of the following structures is most highly associated with subcoracoid impingement?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subscapularis tendon
Explanation
Subcoracoid impingement is a less common cause of anterior shoulder pain that occurs when the coracohumeral distance is pathologically narrowed (typically less than 6 mm). The impingement occurs between the coracoid process and the lesser tuberosity. Because the subscapularis tendon inserts onto the lesser tuberosity, subcoracoid impingement classically results in tearing or tendinopathy of the subscapularis tendon. The long head of the biceps may also be involved, but subscapularis pathology is the hallmark.
Question 2667
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 30-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. He has a positive apprehension test and a significant Hill-Sachs lesion on MRI. On physical examination, he demonstrates hyperlaxity. Which surgical procedure is most appropriate to reduce the risk of recurrent dislocation in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Latarjet procedure
Explanation
In a young, active athlete involved in contact sports, with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, a significant Hill-Sachs lesion, and especially with hyperlaxity or documented glenoid bone loss, the Latarjet procedure is often the most appropriate surgical choice. The Latarjet procedure addresses glenoid bone loss and provides a sling effect (conjoint tendon transfer), significantly reducing recurrence rates in this high-risk population, where isolated soft tissue repairs (Bankart) may have higher failure rates. Remplissage is for engaging Hill-Sachs lesions without significant glenoid bone loss.
Question 2668
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 32-year-old professional dancer complains of deep groin pain, worse with hip flexion and internal rotation. She also reports clicking and catching sensations. MRI shows a labral tear and pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). What is the most appropriate surgical treatment to address both the labral tear and the underlying bony impingement?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic osteochondroplasty of the acetabulum and femoral head/neck
Explanation
For symptomatic femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), whether cam, pincer, or mixed, with an associated labral tear, the definitive surgical treatment is arthroscopic osteochondroplasty. This procedure involves reshaping the non-spherical femoral head-neck junction (for cam lesions) and/or trimming the excessive acetabular rim (for pincer lesions) to eliminate the impingement, and typically involves repairing or debriding the labral tear. This addresses both the underlying bony morphology causing the impingement and the resulting soft tissue damage. Isolated labral debridement does not address the cause, and hip arthroplasty is for end-stage arthritis.
Question 2669
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 48-year-old male presents with worsening right shoulder pain and weakness for the past 6 months. He denies trauma. Physical examination reveals a positive impingement sign, painful arc of motion, and weakness with external rotation against resistance. MRI shows a full-thickness rotator cuff tear of the supraspinatus tendon, measuring 1.5 cm. There is no significant fatty infiltration or muscle atrophy. What is the most appropriate management for this active, non-throwing patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair
Explanation
For an active patient with a symptomatic, full-thickness rotator cuff tear, especially a relatively small (1.5 cm) tear with good tissue quality (no significant fatty infiltration or atrophy), surgical repair is generally recommended to restore function, relieve pain, and prevent tear enlargement. Arthroscopic repair is the gold standard approach, offering less morbidity than open repair while achieving comparable outcomes. Conservative management (PT, injections) may be attempted but often fails to provide lasting relief in full-thickness tears. Hemiarthroplasty is for advanced cuff tear arthropathy.
Question 2670
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 68-year-old male with a history of chronic kidney disease and hypertension presents with shoulder pain and weakness. Imaging reveals extensive calcific deposits within the rotator cuff tendons, particularly the supraspinatus. What is the most likely underlying metabolic etiology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hyperparathyroidism
Explanation
The presence of extensive calcific deposits within the rotator cuff tendons, especially in a patient with chronic kidney disease, is highly suggestive of secondary hyperparathyroidism. Chronic kidney disease leads to impaired phosphate excretion and decreased vitamin D activation, resulting in hypocalcemia, which stimulates parathyroid hormone (PTH) release. High PTH levels can cause ectopic calcification in soft tissues, including tendons. Gout involves urate crystals. CPPD deposition (pseudogout) can cause calcific tendinitis, but hyperparathyroidism is a more direct cause in CKD. Oxalosis is rare. Milwaukee shoulder syndrome involves basic calcium phosphate crystals leading to rapid destructive arthropathy, often in older females.
Question 2671
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
You are presenting a case of recurrent shoulder instability in a viva. To demonstrate a high level of expertise, you should primarily focus on:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Systematically assessing patient factors, anatomy, imaging findings (e.g., glenoid bone loss, Hill-Sachs lesion), and considering individualized management algorithms.
Explanation
For complex conditions like recurrent shoulder instability, a high-scoring candidate will integrate various factors. This includes patient age, activity level, direction of instability, the presence and severity of bony lesions (glenoid bone loss, Hill-Sachs), and soft tissue pathology. This leads to an individualized management algorithm, reflecting advanced clinical reasoning and the ability to tailor treatment, which is highly valued by examiners.
Question 2672
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
When discussing rotator cuff tears, what is the most important element for an examiner to hear regarding optimal management strategy, beyond just surgical technique?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Patient age, activity demands, chronicity of symptoms, size and retractibility of the tear, fatty infiltration of the muscle, and the presence of associated pathology, all guiding a shared decision-making process for conservative vs. surgical management.
Explanation
Optimal management of rotator cuff tears is highly individualized. A high-scoring answer will integrate patient factors (age, demands, activity level, comorbidities), tear characteristics (size, chronicity, retractibility, fatty infiltration), and associated pathology to inform a shared decision-making process between conservative and surgical options. Simply focusing on tear size or immediate surgery is insufficient and demonstrates a lack of nuanced understanding.
Question 2673
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
You are presenting a case of recurrent shoulder instability in an overhead athlete. The examiner asks, 'What specific factors would lead you to favor a bony reconstructive procedure (e.g., Latarjet) over an arthroscopic soft-tissue repair (e.g., Bankart) in this patient?'
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Presence of a significant glenoid bone loss (>20-25%) or an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion.
Explanation
Significant glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25% of the inferior glenoid) or an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion (where the humeral head defect engages the anterior glenoid rim) are the primary indications to favor a bony reconstructive procedure like the Latarjet over an arthroscopic soft-tissue repair for recurrent shoulder instability. These factors are associated with higher failure rates after isolated soft tissue repair. Patient preference (A) is secondary to biomechanical stability. A single prior dislocation (C) without bone loss would typically favor soft tissue repair. Age (D) is a risk factor for recurrence, but not a direct indication for bony procedure without bone loss. WOSI scores (E) reflect the severity of instability symptoms but not necessarily the underlying pathology dictating surgical choice.
Question 2674
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
You are asked about the differential diagnosis of hip pain in a young adult. After listing common causes, the examiner asks, 'What specific signs or symptoms would raise your suspicion for a rare but critical diagnosis like avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head in this demographic?'
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Insidious onset of groin pain, often worse with weight-bearing, without a clear traumatic event, especially in the presence of risk factors such as corticosteroid use or alcohol abuse.
Explanation
Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head typically presents with insidious onset of deep, aching groin pain, often made worse with weight-bearing, in the absence of a clear acute traumatic event. The presence of risk factors (e.g., steroid use, excessive alcohol, sickle cell disease, lupus, trauma with vascular disruption) significantly increases suspicion. Acute pain with external rotation/shortening (B) is classic for hip fracture/dislocation. Buttock pain radiating down the posterior thigh (C) suggests piriformis syndrome or sacroiliac joint dysfunction. Clicking/catching with FADIR (D) is indicative of femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) or labral tear. Lateral hip pain (E) points to trochanteric bursitis.
Question 2675
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
You are asked about the management of a patient with chronic shoulder pain, and you suspect rotator cuff tendinopathy. The examiner asks, 'What is the most important component of conservative management for this condition?'
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A structured, progressive physical therapy program focusing on rotator cuff strengthening, scapular stabilization, and postural correction.
Explanation
The most important component of conservative management for rotator cuff tendinopathy is a structured, progressive physical therapy program. This focuses on improving rotator cuff strength and endurance, enhancing scapular mechanics and stability, and addressing any postural imbalances. This approach aims to restore proper shoulder biomechanics and reduce impingement. While NSAIDs (D) can help with pain, and injections (A) can offer short-term relief, they are adjuncts, not the primary management. Complete immobilization (B) is detrimental. Immediate surgical referral (E) is not indicated for tendinopathy unless it progresses to a tear failing conservative management.
Question 2676
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
In a viva, you are asked about the surgical management of rotator cuff tears. The examiner asks, 'What is the primary rationale for repairing a symptomatic, full-thickness rotator cuff tear in an active individual, even if symptoms have been long-standing?'
Correct Answer & Explanation
. To restore rotator cuff function, improve pain, and prevent tear propagation and the eventual development of rotator cuff arthropathy.
Explanation
The primary rationale for repairing a symptomatic, full-thickness rotator cuff tear in an active individual is to restore the normal biomechanics and function of the rotator cuff, alleviate pain, prevent the tear from propagating (enlarging), and, critically, to avert the long-term development of rotator cuff arthropathy (cuff tear arthropathy), which is a much more debilitating condition. Repair allows for better long-term functional outcomes. Preventing adhesive capsulitis (A) is not the primary reason. Lifting heavy weights (C) is an unrealistic immediate goal. Avoiding physical therapy (D) is incorrect; rehabilitation is vital. DVT risk reduction (E) is a general surgical benefit.
Question 2677
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
In assessing the integrity of the AC joint on physical examination, direct palpation over the joint elicits pain. Which other maneuver is particularly helpful in localizing pain to the AC joint?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cross-body adduction (or 'scarf') test
Explanation
The cross-body adduction test, also known as the 'scarf test', specifically compresses the AC joint. When the arm is adducted across the chest, the acromion and distal clavicle are pushed together, often exacerbating pain originating from the AC joint, making it a useful diagnostic maneuver. The other tests assess glenohumeral instability (apprehension, relocation), biceps pathology (Speed's), or rotator cuff pathology (empty can).
Question 2678
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
For a patient presenting with an AC joint injury, what is the primary role of an MRI in the diagnostic workup, especially when plain radiographs are equivocal?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. To precisely delineate the extent of ligamentous and soft tissue injury (AC and CC ligaments, deltoid/trapezius fascia).
Explanation
While plain radiographs are the cornerstone for initial AC joint diagnosis and classification, MRI can provide a more detailed assessment of the extent of ligamentous (AC and CC) and surrounding soft tissue (deltoid and trapezius fascia) injury. This can be particularly useful in equivocal cases or for surgical planning in higher-grade injuries, as it can help differentiate between Type II and III, or identify fascial stripping (Type V). It can also identify associated rotator cuff tears, but its primary utility for AC joint injury itself is detailed soft tissue assessment.
Question 2679
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
What is the clinical significance of a positive 'piano key' sign in an AC joint injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Confirms complete disruption of the coracoclavicular ligaments (Type III or higher).
Explanation
The 'piano key' sign, where the distal clavicle can be depressed but springs back up, signifies a complete loss of the vertical stabilizing effect of the coracoclavicular ligaments. This finding is indicative of a complete tear of the CC ligaments, which is characteristic of Rockwood Type III and higher AC joint dislocations. It is not present in Type I or II where CC ligaments are intact or only partially torn.
Question 2680
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
When performing a clinical examination for AC joint pathology, what is the best way to differentiate pain originating from the AC joint versus the subacromial space?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pain with cross-body adduction (for AC joint) vs. pain with internal rotation/impingement tests (for subacromial).
Explanation
Pain with cross-body adduction specifically loads the AC joint, making it a good discriminator for AC joint pathology. In contrast, subacromial pathology (e.g., impingement, bursitis, rotator cuff tendinopathy) is typically exacerbated by overhead movements, internal rotation, and specific impingement tests (Neer, Hawkins-Kennedy). While rotator cuff tests can indirectly differentiate, the direct comparison of AC loading vs. subacromial loading is key.
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