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Question 2661

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. Forward elevation and internal rotation strength are normal. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Where is this cyst most likely located?

. Quadrilateral space
. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Spiral groove
. Triangular interval

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

A cyst at the spinoglenoid notch compresses the suprascapular nerve after it has already given off its motor branches to the supraspinatus, resulting in isolated denervation and weakness of the infraspinatus (manifesting as an external rotation deficit). Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 2662

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague shoulder pain and decreased throwing velocity. Physical examination reveals a 25-degree loss of glenohumeral internal rotation compared to the contralateral side, but total arc of motion is symmetric. What is the primary pathophysiologic cause of this internal rotation deficit?

. Anterior capsular laxity
. Posterior capsular contracture
. Subscapularis tear
. Acromioclavicular osteoarthritis
. Biceps anchor fraying

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior capsular contracture


Explanation

Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) in overhead athletes is classically caused by contracture and thickening of the posteroinferior capsule. This forces the humeral head posterosuperiorly during the late cocking phase, predisposing the athlete to internal impingement and SLAP tears. Sleeper stretches are the mainstay of initial treatment.

Question 2663

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A latissimus dorsi tendon transfer is being considered for a 55-year-old male with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. Which of the following preoperative findings is considered an absolute contraindication to performing this specific tendon transfer?

. Severe atrophy and fatty infiltration of the teres minor
. Irreparable subscapularis tendon tear
. Hamada grade 2 radiographic changes
. Inability to actively externally rotate the shoulder beyond neutral
. Age greater than 50 years

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Irreparable subscapularis tendon tear


Explanation

A latissimus dorsi transfer depends heavily on an intact anterior force couple to dynamically stabilize the humeral head in the glenoid during arm elevation. Therefore, an irreparable subscapularis tear is considered an absolute contraindication, as the joint will remain uncoupled and unbalanced, leading to inevitable failure of the transfer.

Question 2664

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old man with a history of seizures presents with a chronic, locked posterior shoulder dislocation. A modified McLaughlin procedure is planned. During this procedure, which anatomic structure is transferred into the reverse Hill-Sachs defect to provide stability?

. Subscapularis tendon alone
. Lesser tuberosity with the attached subscapularis tendon
. Coracoid process with the conjoined tendon
. Pectoralis major tendon
. Long head of the biceps tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lesser tuberosity with the attached subscapularis tendon


Explanation

The original McLaughlin procedure involves detaching the subscapularis tendon and transferring it into the reverse Hill-Sachs (anteromedial humeral head) defect to prevent it from engaging the posterior glenoid rim. ThemodifiedMcLaughlin procedure, popularized by Neer, involves an osteotomy of the lesser tuberosity with the subscapularis attached, transferring the bone block into the defect for superior bone-to-bone healing.

Question 2665

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old elite volleyball player presents with insidious onset of right shoulder weakness. Physical examination reveals normal forward elevation and abduction, but isolated weakness in external rotation. There is prominent atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa, while the supraspinatus fossa is well-preserved. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Where is the cyst most likely located?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Rotator interval
. Triangular space

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates both the supraspinatus and the infraspinatus muscles. The motor branch to the supraspinatus takes off after the nerve passes through the suprascapular notch but before it reaches the spinoglenoid notch. Entrapment of the nerve at the spinoglenoid notch (often due to a paralabral cyst associated with a posterior labral tear) results in isolated denervation of the infraspinatus, sparing the supraspinatus.

Question 2666

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old male presents with anterior shoulder pain characterized by a positive 'coracoid impingement test' (pain elicited with the arm in forward flexion, internal rotation, and adduction). Advanced imaging measures the coracohumeral distance to be 4 mm. Pathology involving which of the following structures is most highly associated with subcoracoid impingement?

. Supraspinatus tendon
. Subscapularis tendon
. Infraspinatus tendon
. Teres minor tendon
. Long head of the triceps tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis tendon


Explanation

Subcoracoid impingement is a less common cause of anterior shoulder pain that occurs when the coracohumeral distance is pathologically narrowed (typically less than 6 mm). The impingement occurs between the coracoid process and the lesser tuberosity. Because the subscapularis tendon inserts onto the lesser tuberosity, subcoracoid impingement classically results in tearing or tendinopathy of the subscapularis tendon. The long head of the biceps may also be involved, but subscapularis pathology is the hallmark.

Question 2667

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. He has a positive apprehension test and a significant Hill-Sachs lesion on MRI. On physical examination, he demonstrates hyperlaxity. Which surgical procedure is most appropriate to reduce the risk of recurrent dislocation in this patient?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair
. Latarjet procedure
. Remplissage procedure
. SLAP repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latarjet procedure


Explanation

In a young, active athlete involved in contact sports, with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, a significant Hill-Sachs lesion, and especially with hyperlaxity or documented glenoid bone loss, the Latarjet procedure is often the most appropriate surgical choice. The Latarjet procedure addresses glenoid bone loss and provides a sling effect (conjoint tendon transfer), significantly reducing recurrence rates in this high-risk population, where isolated soft tissue repairs (Bankart) may have higher failure rates. Remplissage is for engaging Hill-Sachs lesions without significant glenoid bone loss.

Question 2668

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 32-year-old professional dancer complains of deep groin pain, worse with hip flexion and internal rotation. She also reports clicking and catching sensations. MRI shows a labral tear and pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). What is the most appropriate surgical treatment to address both the labral tear and the underlying bony impingement?

. Open surgical dislocation of the hip for debridement
. Arthroscopic debridement of the labral tear only
. Arthroscopic osteochondroplasty of the acetabulum and femoral head/neck
. Hip arthroplasty
. Activity modification and NSAIDs

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic osteochondroplasty of the acetabulum and femoral head/neck


Explanation

For symptomatic femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), whether cam, pincer, or mixed, with an associated labral tear, the definitive surgical treatment is arthroscopic osteochondroplasty. This procedure involves reshaping the non-spherical femoral head-neck junction (for cam lesions) and/or trimming the excessive acetabular rim (for pincer lesions) to eliminate the impingement, and typically involves repairing or debriding the labral tear. This addresses both the underlying bony morphology causing the impingement and the resulting soft tissue damage. Isolated labral debridement does not address the cause, and hip arthroplasty is for end-stage arthritis.

Question 2669

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 48-year-old male presents with worsening right shoulder pain and weakness for the past 6 months. He denies trauma. Physical examination reveals a positive impingement sign, painful arc of motion, and weakness with external rotation against resistance. MRI shows a full-thickness rotator cuff tear of the supraspinatus tendon, measuring 1.5 cm. There is no significant fatty infiltration or muscle atrophy. What is the most appropriate management for this active, non-throwing patient?

. Physical therapy focusing on strengthening and stretching
. Subacromial corticosteroid injection
. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair
. Open rotator cuff repair
. Hemiarthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair


Explanation

For an active patient with a symptomatic, full-thickness rotator cuff tear, especially a relatively small (1.5 cm) tear with good tissue quality (no significant fatty infiltration or atrophy), surgical repair is generally recommended to restore function, relieve pain, and prevent tear enlargement. Arthroscopic repair is the gold standard approach, offering less morbidity than open repair while achieving comparable outcomes. Conservative management (PT, injections) may be attempted but often fails to provide lasting relief in full-thickness tears. Hemiarthroplasty is for advanced cuff tear arthropathy.

Question 2670

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 68-year-old male with a history of chronic kidney disease and hypertension presents with shoulder pain and weakness. Imaging reveals extensive calcific deposits within the rotator cuff tendons, particularly the supraspinatus. What is the most likely underlying metabolic etiology?

. Gout
. Hyperparathyroidism
. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) deposition disease
. Oxalosis
. Milwaukee shoulder syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyperparathyroidism


Explanation

The presence of extensive calcific deposits within the rotator cuff tendons, especially in a patient with chronic kidney disease, is highly suggestive of secondary hyperparathyroidism. Chronic kidney disease leads to impaired phosphate excretion and decreased vitamin D activation, resulting in hypocalcemia, which stimulates parathyroid hormone (PTH) release. High PTH levels can cause ectopic calcification in soft tissues, including tendons. Gout involves urate crystals. CPPD deposition (pseudogout) can cause calcific tendinitis, but hyperparathyroidism is a more direct cause in CKD. Oxalosis is rare. Milwaukee shoulder syndrome involves basic calcium phosphate crystals leading to rapid destructive arthropathy, often in older females.

Question 2671

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

You are presenting a case of recurrent shoulder instability in a viva. To demonstrate a high level of expertise, you should primarily focus on:

. Reciting the surgical steps for a Latarjet procedure.
. Discussing all possible causes of shoulder pain.
. Systematically assessing patient factors, anatomy, imaging findings (e.g., glenoid bone loss, Hill-Sachs lesion), and considering individualized management algorithms.
. Emphasizing only the most common cause (anterior dislocation).
. Stating that the patient needs an MRI.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Systematically assessing patient factors, anatomy, imaging findings (e.g., glenoid bone loss, Hill-Sachs lesion), and considering individualized management algorithms.


Explanation

For complex conditions like recurrent shoulder instability, a high-scoring candidate will integrate various factors. This includes patient age, activity level, direction of instability, the presence and severity of bony lesions (glenoid bone loss, Hill-Sachs), and soft tissue pathology. This leads to an individualized management algorithm, reflecting advanced clinical reasoning and the ability to tailor treatment, which is highly valued by examiners.

Question 2672

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

When discussing rotator cuff tears, what is the most important element for an examiner to hear regarding optimal management strategy, beyond just surgical technique?

. Only the size of the tear.
. That all tears require surgery.
. Patient age, activity demands, chronicity of symptoms, size and retractibility of the tear, fatty infiltration of the muscle, and the presence of associated pathology, all guiding a shared decision-making process for conservative vs. surgical management.
. The type of suture used for repair.
. Ignoring patient's pain level.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patient age, activity demands, chronicity of symptoms, size and retractibility of the tear, fatty infiltration of the muscle, and the presence of associated pathology, all guiding a shared decision-making process for conservative vs. surgical management.


Explanation

Optimal management of rotator cuff tears is highly individualized. A high-scoring answer will integrate patient factors (age, demands, activity level, comorbidities), tear characteristics (size, chronicity, retractibility, fatty infiltration), and associated pathology to inform a shared decision-making process between conservative and surgical options. Simply focusing on tear size or immediate surgery is insufficient and demonstrates a lack of nuanced understanding.

Question 2673

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

You are presenting a case of recurrent shoulder instability in an overhead athlete. The examiner asks, 'What specific factors would lead you to favor a bony reconstructive procedure (e.g., Latarjet) over an arthroscopic soft-tissue repair (e.g., Bankart) in this patient?'

. Patient preference for a faster recovery time.
. Presence of a significant glenoid bone loss (>20-25%) or an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion.
. A history of only one prior dislocation with no apparent bone loss.
. The patient's age being under 20 years old.
. High scores on the Western Ontario Shoulder Instability Index (WOSI).

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presence of a significant glenoid bone loss (>20-25%) or an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion.


Explanation

Significant glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25% of the inferior glenoid) or an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion (where the humeral head defect engages the anterior glenoid rim) are the primary indications to favor a bony reconstructive procedure like the Latarjet over an arthroscopic soft-tissue repair for recurrent shoulder instability. These factors are associated with higher failure rates after isolated soft tissue repair. Patient preference (A) is secondary to biomechanical stability. A single prior dislocation (C) without bone loss would typically favor soft tissue repair. Age (D) is a risk factor for recurrence, but not a direct indication for bony procedure without bone loss. WOSI scores (E) reflect the severity of instability symptoms but not necessarily the underlying pathology dictating surgical choice.

Question 2674

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

You are asked about the differential diagnosis of hip pain in a young adult. After listing common causes, the examiner asks, 'What specific signs or symptoms would raise your suspicion for a rare but critical diagnosis like avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head in this demographic?'

. Insidious onset of groin pain, often worse with weight-bearing, without a clear traumatic event, especially in the presence of risk factors such as corticosteroid use or alcohol abuse.
. Acute onset of severe pain after a fall onto the hip, with external rotation and shortening of the limb.
. Chronic, dull ache in the buttock radiating down the posterior thigh, exacerbated by prolonged sitting.
. Clicking or catching sensation in the hip with specific movements, often associated with a positive FADIR test.
. Sudden, sharp pain in the lateral hip, reproducible with palpation over the greater trochanter.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Insidious onset of groin pain, often worse with weight-bearing, without a clear traumatic event, especially in the presence of risk factors such as corticosteroid use or alcohol abuse.


Explanation

Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head typically presents with insidious onset of deep, aching groin pain, often made worse with weight-bearing, in the absence of a clear acute traumatic event. The presence of risk factors (e.g., steroid use, excessive alcohol, sickle cell disease, lupus, trauma with vascular disruption) significantly increases suspicion. Acute pain with external rotation/shortening (B) is classic for hip fracture/dislocation. Buttock pain radiating down the posterior thigh (C) suggests piriformis syndrome or sacroiliac joint dysfunction. Clicking/catching with FADIR (D) is indicative of femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) or labral tear. Lateral hip pain (E) points to trochanteric bursitis.

Question 2675

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

You are asked about the management of a patient with chronic shoulder pain, and you suspect rotator cuff tendinopathy. The examiner asks, 'What is the most important component of conservative management for this condition?'

. Repeated corticosteroid injections into the subacromial space.
. Complete immobilization of the shoulder for 6 weeks.
. A structured, progressive physical therapy program focusing on rotator cuff strengthening, scapular stabilization, and postural correction.
. Oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) as needed.
. Immediate referral for surgical repair of the rotator cuff.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A structured, progressive physical therapy program focusing on rotator cuff strengthening, scapular stabilization, and postural correction.


Explanation

The most important component of conservative management for rotator cuff tendinopathy is a structured, progressive physical therapy program. This focuses on improving rotator cuff strength and endurance, enhancing scapular mechanics and stability, and addressing any postural imbalances. This approach aims to restore proper shoulder biomechanics and reduce impingement. While NSAIDs (D) can help with pain, and injections (A) can offer short-term relief, they are adjuncts, not the primary management. Complete immobilization (B) is detrimental. Immediate surgical referral (E) is not indicated for tendinopathy unless it progresses to a tear failing conservative management.

Question 2676

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In a viva, you are asked about the surgical management of rotator cuff tears. The examiner asks, 'What is the primary rationale for repairing a symptomatic, full-thickness rotator cuff tear in an active individual, even if symptoms have been long-standing?'

. To prevent the development of shoulder adhesive capsulitis.
. To restore rotator cuff function, improve pain, and prevent tear propagation and the eventual development of rotator cuff arthropathy.
. To enable the patient to lift heavy weights above their head immediately post-operatively.
. To avoid the need for any further physical therapy.
. To reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. To restore rotator cuff function, improve pain, and prevent tear propagation and the eventual development of rotator cuff arthropathy.


Explanation

The primary rationale for repairing a symptomatic, full-thickness rotator cuff tear in an active individual is to restore the normal biomechanics and function of the rotator cuff, alleviate pain, prevent the tear from propagating (enlarging), and, critically, to avert the long-term development of rotator cuff arthropathy (cuff tear arthropathy), which is a much more debilitating condition. Repair allows for better long-term functional outcomes. Preventing adhesive capsulitis (A) is not the primary reason. Lifting heavy weights (C) is an unrealistic immediate goal. Avoiding physical therapy (D) is incorrect; rehabilitation is vital. DVT risk reduction (E) is a general surgical benefit.

Question 2677

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In assessing the integrity of the AC joint on physical examination, direct palpation over the joint elicits pain. Which other maneuver is particularly helpful in localizing pain to the AC joint?

. Apprehension test
. Relocation test
. Speed's test
. Cross-body adduction (or 'scarf') test
. Empty can test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cross-body adduction (or 'scarf') test


Explanation

The cross-body adduction test, also known as the 'scarf test', specifically compresses the AC joint. When the arm is adducted across the chest, the acromion and distal clavicle are pushed together, often exacerbating pain originating from the AC joint, making it a useful diagnostic maneuver. The other tests assess glenohumeral instability (apprehension, relocation), biceps pathology (Speed's), or rotator cuff pathology (empty can).

Question 2678

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
For a patient presenting with an AC joint injury, what is the primary role of an MRI in the diagnostic workup, especially when plain radiographs are equivocal?
. To confirm the presence of a clavicle fracture.
. To assess for associated rotator cuff tears.
. To precisely delineate the extent of ligamentous and soft tissue injury (AC and CC ligaments, deltoid/trapezius fascia).
. To evaluate for brachial plexus involvement.
. To rule out a glenohumeral joint dislocation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. To precisely delineate the extent of ligamentous and soft tissue injury (AC and CC ligaments, deltoid/trapezius fascia).


Explanation

While plain radiographs are the cornerstone for initial AC joint diagnosis and classification, MRI can provide a more detailed assessment of the extent of ligamentous (AC and CC) and surrounding soft tissue (deltoid and trapezius fascia) injury. This can be particularly useful in equivocal cases or for surgical planning in higher-grade injuries, as it can help differentiate between Type II and III, or identify fascial stripping (Type V). It can also identify associated rotator cuff tears, but its primary utility for AC joint injury itself is detailed soft tissue assessment.

Question 2679

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
What is the clinical significance of a positive 'piano key' sign in an AC joint injury?
. Indicates an isolated AC ligament sprain (Type I).
. Suggests a partial tear of the AC ligaments only (Type II).
. Confirms complete disruption of the coracoclavicular ligaments (Type III or higher).
. Points to posterior displacement of the clavicle (Type IV).
. Suggests an associated rotator cuff tear.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Confirms complete disruption of the coracoclavicular ligaments (Type III or higher).


Explanation

The 'piano key' sign, where the distal clavicle can be depressed but springs back up, signifies a complete loss of the vertical stabilizing effect of the coracoclavicular ligaments. This finding is indicative of a complete tear of the CC ligaments, which is characteristic of Rockwood Type III and higher AC joint dislocations. It is not present in Type I or II where CC ligaments are intact or only partially torn.

Question 2680

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

When performing a clinical examination for AC joint pathology, what is the best way to differentiate pain originating from the AC joint versus the subacromial space?

. Resisted external rotation (for rotator cuff).
. Pain with cross-body adduction (for AC joint) vs. pain with internal rotation/impingement tests (for subacromial).
. Palpation over the bicipital groove.
. Apprehension test (for instability).
. Sulcus sign (for instability).

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pain with cross-body adduction (for AC joint) vs. pain with internal rotation/impingement tests (for subacromial).


Explanation

Pain with cross-body adduction specifically loads the AC joint, making it a good discriminator for AC joint pathology. In contrast, subacromial pathology (e.g., impingement, bursitis, rotator cuff tendinopathy) is typically exacerbated by overhead movements, internal rotation, and specific impingement tests (Neer, Hawkins-Kennedy). While rotator cuff tests can indirectly differentiate, the direct comparison of AC loading vs. subacromial loading is key.