Menu

Question 2601

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Physical examination reveals a 20-degree glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD). Which of the following MRI findings is most characteristic of 'internal impingement' in this patient?

. Anteroinferior labral tear (Bankart) with a Hill-Sachs lesion
. Posterosuperior labral fraying with an articular-sided partial supraspinatus tear
. Subcoracoid effusion with a subscapularis tendon tear
. Superior labrum anterior-posterior (SLAP) tear extending into the biceps anchor
. Thickened coracoacromial ligament with bursal-sided rotator cuff fraying

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterosuperior labral fraying with an articular-sided partial supraspinatus tear


Explanation

Internal impingement (posterosuperior impingement) occurs during the late cocking phase (abduction and maximal external rotation), causing the greater tuberosity to abut the posterosuperior glenoid. This pinches the posterior labrum and the articular side of the supraspinatus/infraspinatus tendons, leading to labral fraying and partial articular-sided rotator cuff tears (PASTA lesions).

Question 2602

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old construction worker presents with a symptomatic Type II SLAP tear. According to recent literature, compared to arthroscopic SLAP repair, primary biceps tenodesis in patients in this age demographic is associated with:

. Higher rates of postoperative stiffness
. Lower rates of return to previous level of work
. Decreased patient satisfaction
. Lower rates of revision surgery
. Higher risk of axillary nerve injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lower rates of revision surgery


Explanation

In patients over 40 years old, primary biceps tenodesis for symptomatic SLAP tears yields significantly higher satisfaction, lower rates of postoperative stiffness, and lower revision rates compared to arthroscopic SLAP repair. SLAP repair in this age group has notoriously unpredictable outcomes and higher failure rates.

Question 2603

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In the evaluation of anterior shoulder instability, the 'glenoid track' concept is used to determine the risk of engagement. A Hill-Sachs lesion is considered 'off-track' (and thus at high risk of engagement) if:

. The Hill-Sachs interval is less than the glenoid track
. The Hill-Sachs interval is greater than the glenoid track
. The glenoid defect is less than 15%
. The patient has an intact anterior labrum
. The Hill-Sachs lesion does not engage the anterior glenoid rim

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The Hill-Sachs interval is greater than the glenoid track


Explanation

The glenoid track is approximately 83% of the intact glenoid width minus the width of any anterior bone loss. The Hill-Sachs interval (HSI) is the width of the Hill-Sachs lesion plus the intact bone bridge medial to the rotator cuff footprint. If the HSI is greater than the glenoid track, the lesion extends outside the track during arm abduction/external rotation, making it 'off-track' and likely to engage.

Question 2604

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 26-year-old baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain and a "dead arm" sensation during the late cocking phase of throwing. He exhibits a 25-degree glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD). What is the primary pathomechanical cause of his suspected labral pathology?

. Peel-back mechanism of the superior labrum
. Subcoracoid impingement
. Tensile failure of the middle glenohumeral ligament
. Internal impingement of the subscapularis
. Attritional tear of the coracohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peel-back mechanism of the superior labrum


Explanation

In throwing athletes, maximum external rotation in the late cocking phase causes a posterior shift of the biceps vector, creating a torsional "peel-back" force on the superior labrum. This is exacerbated by posterior capsular tightness (GIRD), driving Type II SLAP lesions.

Question 2605

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During hip arthroscopy for mixed femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), excessive bony resection of a cam lesion extending too far posterosuperiorly on the femoral head-neck junction risks injury to the terminal branches of which artery?

. Lateral circumflex femoral artery
. Medial circumflex femoral artery
. Obturator artery
. Superior gluteal artery
. Inferior gluteal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial circumflex femoral artery


Explanation

The medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA) provides the primary blood supply to the femoral head via the retinacular vessels, which enter the posterosuperior capsule. Overzealous resection in this area endangers these vessels and can lead to avascular necrosis (AVN).

Question 2606

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 20-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT shows 15% glenoid bone loss and a Hill-Sachs lesion. Based on the 'glenoid track' concept, an 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesion is defined by which of the following?

. The medial margin of the Hill-Sachs lesion extends medial to the glenoid track
. The lateral margin of the Hill-Sachs lesion is lateral to the glenoid track
. The glenoid track is wider than the Hill-Sachs lesion
. The Hill-Sachs lesion engages only in adduction and internal rotation
. The glenoid bone loss is less than 20%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The medial margin of the Hill-Sachs lesion extends medial to the glenoid track


Explanation

An 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesion occurs when its medial margin lies medial to the glenoid track, meaning it will engage the anterior glenoid rim during abduction and external rotation. This usually requires a Remplissage or bone block procedure.

Question 2607

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old male hockey player undergoes hip arthroscopy for symptomatic femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). An isolated cam lesion is resected. Which anatomic landmark marks the most common location of a cam deformity on the femoral head-neck junction?

. Posteroinferior
. Anteromedial
. Anterosuperior
. Posterosuperior
. Directly medial

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterosuperior


Explanation

Cam lesions are most commonly located at the anterosuperior aspect of the femoral head-neck junction. Resection restores the normal concavity, preventing impingement during hip flexion and internal rotation.

Question 2608

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with vague anterior shoulder pain and a 'dead arm' sensation. Examination reveals Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees. During the late cocking phase of throwing, which mechanism is primarily responsible for a Type II SLAP tear?

. Peel-back mechanism
. Subcoracoid impingement
. Traction from the short head of the biceps
. Direct superior compression
. Internal impingement of the subscapularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peel-back mechanism


Explanation

In the late cocking phase (abduction and maximal external rotation), the biceps vector shifts posteriorly. This creates a torsional 'peel-back' force on the superior labrum, leading to Type II SLAP tears in overhead athletes.

Question 2609

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old male undergoes hip arthroscopy for symptomatic femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). He has a large cam lesion requiring osteochondroplasty. To minimize the risk of a postoperative iatrogenic femoral neck fracture, the maximum recommended depth of the resection should not exceed what percentage of the femoral neck diameter?

. 10%
. 20%
. 30%
. 40%
. 50%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 30%


Explanation

Biomechanical studies have shown that resecting more than 30% of the femoral neck diameter significantly reduces load-to-failure strength. Resections should be kept below this threshold to prevent iatrogenic femoral neck fractures.

Question 2610

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which of the following structures is contained within the rotator interval of the shoulder?

. Coracoacromial ligament
. Subscapularis tendon
. Supraspinatus tendon
. Coracohumeral ligament
. Middle glenohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coracohumeral ligament


Explanation

The rotator interval is a triangular anatomical space between the anterior margin of the supraspinatus and the superior margin of the subscapularis. It contains the coracohumeral ligament (CHL), superior glenohumeral ligament (SGHL), the long head of the biceps tendon, and the joint capsule.

Question 2611

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with isolated weakness in external rotation of the right shoulder. Abduction is full and symmetric to the contralateral side. Atrophy is noted in the infraspinatus fossa. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Where is the cyst most likely located?

. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Rotator interval

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

Isolated weakness of the infraspinatus implies compression of the suprascapular nerve after it has already given off motor branches to the supraspinatus. This distal compression characteristically occurs at the spinoglenoid notch. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 2612

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle. Examination shows preserved supraspinatus strength. Magnetic resonance imaging will most likely show a paralabral cyst compressing the nerve at which specific anatomical location?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrangular space
. Triangular space
. Coracoid base

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only its terminal branch, leading to isolated infraspinatus weakness. Compression at the more proximal suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 2613

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with isolated weakness in shoulder external rotation. Atrophy is noted over the infraspinatus fossa with a normal supraspinatus bulk. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. At which anatomical location is the nerve compression most likely occurring?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Coracoid process

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch results in isolated denervation of the infraspinatus muscle, presenting as external rotation weakness. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. This condition is classically associated with posterior labral tears and resultant paralabral cysts.

Question 2614

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

An 84-year-old lady's shoulder X-ray shows a large, well-circumscribed, amorphous calcification overlying the supraspinatus tendon insertion. She reports acute, severe pain. This presentation is most consistent with:

. Chronic rotator cuff tear
. Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease (CPPD)
. Acute calcific tendinitis (CHADD)
. Osteoarthritis with loose body
. Septic arthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acute calcific tendinitis (CHADD)


Explanation

A large, amorphous, well-defined calcification in a tendon, particularly the supraspinatus, in the context of acute severe pain, is characteristic of acute calcific tendinitis, also known as Calcium Hydroxyapatite Deposition Disease (CHADD). The calcifications are typically within the tendon itself, not the joint space, and are not linear like CPPD. Chronic rotator cuff tears may show superior migration but not necessarily such a dense calcification. Loose bodies are intra-articular and often faceted. Septic arthritis is an infection.

Question 2615

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Radiographically, how can a chronic, massive rotator cuff tear leading to arthropathy be differentiated from an acute traumatic rotator cuff tear on a standard shoulder X-ray series?

. Acute tears always show clear bone fragments
. Chronic tears demonstrate superior migration of the humeral head and acromial erosion
. Acute tears show greater joint effusions
. Chronic tears have more severe soft tissue swelling
. Both are indistinguishable on plain X-rays.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chronic tears demonstrate superior migration of the humeral head and acromial erosion


Explanation

Chronic, massive rotator cuff tears, especially those leading to arthropathy, are characterized by distinct radiographic signs of superior migration of the humeral head and secondary degenerative changes such as acromial erosion and glenoid cartilage loss (rotator cuff arthropathy). Acute tears, particularly partial ones, often show no definitive changes on plain X-rays, although a large effusion or minor bone avulsions might be seen.

Question 2616

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

An 84-year-old lady presents after falling on an outstretched arm. Her X-ray shows an anterior glenohumeral dislocation. What is a 'bony Bankart lesion' that might be visible on specific views?

. A compression fracture of the posterolateral humeral head
. A fracture of the posterior glenoid rim
. An avulsion fracture of the anterior-inferior glenoid rim
. A tear of the superior labrum
. A fracture of the greater tuberosity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. An avulsion fracture of the anterior-inferior glenoid rim


Explanation

A bony Bankart lesion is an avulsion fracture of the anterior-inferior glenoid rim, typically occurring during anterior glenohumeral dislocation when the humeral head impacts and avulses a piece of the glenoid. A compression fracture of the posterolateral humeral head is a Hill-Sachs lesion. A posterior glenoid rim fracture is a reverse bony Bankart. A superior labral tear is a SLAP lesion, which is soft tissue. Greater tuberosity fractures are separate.

Question 2617

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

After a suspected posterior shoulder dislocation in an 84-year-old, which radiographic finding on the humeral head is indicative of a 'reverse Hill-Sachs lesion'?

. An impression fracture on the anteromedial aspect of the humeral head
. A fracture of the posterior glenoid rim
. A superior displacement of the greater tuberosity
. A fracture of the anatomical neck
. A lytic lesion in the subchondral bone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. An impression fracture on the anteromedial aspect of the humeral head


Explanation

A reverse Hill-Sachs lesion (or McLaughlin lesion) is an impression fracture on the anteromedial aspect of the humeral head, occurring when the humeral head impacts against the posterior glenoid rim during a posterior dislocation. A Hill-Sachs lesion (classic) is on the posterolateral aspect from anterior dislocation.

Question 2618

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

For an 84-year-old lady with a history of recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations, which specific radiographic finding would indicate chronic instability and potential future surgical intervention?

. Subchondral sclerosis of the glenoid
. Flattening of the greater tuberosity
. A Hill-Sachs lesion or bony Bankart lesion
. Superior migration of the humeral head
. An intact anatomical neck

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A Hill-Sachs lesion or bony Bankart lesion


Explanation

Hill-Sachs lesions (compression fracture of the posterolateral humeral head) and bony Bankart lesions (avulsion fracture of the anterior-inferior glenoid rim) are common bony sequelae of recurrent anterior glenohumeral dislocations. Their presence indicates significant damage from prior dislocations and can contribute to recurrent instability, often necessitating surgical stabilization. Subchondral sclerosis is general OA. Flattening of GT is not specific. Superior migration is RCA. Intact anatomical neck is irrelevant.

Question 2619

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

You are reviewing a follow-up X-ray for an 84-year-old with an anatomic TSA. What radiographic sign would be most concerning for glenoid component loosening?

. Development of a Hill-Sachs lesion
. Progressive lucency at the bone-cement interface of the glenoid component
. Calcification within the rotator cuff
. Increase in the acromiohumeral interval
. Scapular notching

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Progressive lucency at the bone-cement interface of the glenoid component


Explanation

Progressive lucency (a radiolucent line) greater than 1-2mm at the bone-cement or bone-implant interface around the glenoid component is the most significant radiographic sign of aseptic loosening of the glenoid component in a TSA. Hill-Sachs lesion is related to dislocation. Rotator cuff calcification is calcific tendinitis. Increased AHI suggests rotator cuff tear. Scapular notching is rTSA specific.

Question 2620

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
An X-ray of an 84-year-old patient reveals a hooked or curved acromial morphology. This finding is most relevant to the pathogenesis of:
. Acromioclavicular joint osteoarthritis
. Subacromial impingement syndrome
. Rotator cuff calcific tendinitis
. Glenohumeral avascular necrosis
. Bony Bankart lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subacromial impingement syndrome


Explanation

A hooked or curved (Type II or Type III according to Bigliani's classification) acromial morphology is a well-established anatomical risk factor for subacromial impingement syndrome, as it reduces the space for the rotator cuff tendons to glide beneath the acromion. AC joint OA, calcific tendinitis, AVN, and Bankart lesions are not primarily caused by acromial morphology.