This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Shoulder & Hip Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 2221
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old football player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan demonstrates a bipolar bone loss pattern with a Hill-Sachs lesion. Applying the 'glenoid track' concept, an 'off-track' lesion is defined by which of the following criteria?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The Hill-Sachs interval is greater than the glenoid track width
Explanation
An 'off-track' lesion occurs when the Hill-Sachs interval (the width of the Hill-Sachs lesion plus the intact bony bridge) is greater than the glenoid track. The glenoid track is calculated as 83% of the native glenoid width minus the anterior glenoid bone loss. Off-track lesions engage during abduction and external rotation, indicating a need for procedures like a Latarjet or remplissage.
Question 2222
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 31-year-old volleyball player presents with deep posterior shoulder pain. MRI arthrogram reveals a posterior labral tear with an associated large paralabral cyst extending into the spinoglenoid notch. Clinically, this patient is most likely to exhibit which of the following isolated motor deficits?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Isolated weakness in external rotation
Explanation
The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus muscle before passing through the spinoglenoid notch. A cyst located strictly at the spinoglenoid notch will compress the nerve distally, causing denervation exclusively to the infraspinatus. This results in isolated weakness in external rotation, while abduction (supraspinatus) remains intact.
Question 2223
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 30-year-old male weightlifter hears a 'pop' and experiences sudden sharp pain in his chest while bench pressing. Examination reveals a loss of the normal anterior axillary fold contour. Intraoperatively, the sternoclavicular head of the pectoralis major is found to be avulsed. What is the normal anatomic insertion of this specific head?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral lip of the intertubercular groove, deep to the clavicular head
Explanation
The pectoralis major inserts onto the lateral lip of the bicipital (intertubercular) groove. The tendon twists 180 degrees such that the sternoclavicular head inserts deep (posterior) and proximal to the clavicular head. It is the sternoclavicular head that is most frequently ruptured during eccentric loading (e.g., bench press).
Question 2224
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 40-year-old male experiences a seizure and subsequently presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation. Imaging reveals a 30% anterior articular surface defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion). Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate to prevent recurrent engagement of this specific defect?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the articular defect (Modified McLaughlin)
Explanation
For a locked posterior dislocation with an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs or McLaughlin lesion) involving between 20% and 40% of the articular surface, the modified McLaughlin procedure is indicated. This involves transferring the lesser tuberosity (with its attached subscapularis) into the defect to restore stability. The classic McLaughlin involves only the subscapularis tendon.
Question 2225
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 42-year-old man presents with acute, severe, unrelenting right shoulder pain that began 3 weeks ago without any antecedent trauma. The pain lasted for 10 days and has since significantly improved, but he now notices profound weakness when trying to elevate his arm or externally rotate it. Physical examination reveals prominent atrophy of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus fossae. MRI of the shoulder reveals no rotator cuff tears, but shows diffuse T2 hyperintensity and edema within the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Parsonage-Turner syndrome (idiopathic brachial neuritis) typically presents with an acute phase of severe shoulder girdle pain followed days to weeks later by painless weakness and muscle atrophy. The suprascapular nerve and anterior interosseous nerve are most commonly affected. MRI will show neurogenic edema (T2 hyperintensity) in the acutely denervated muscles without a structural tendon tear. Spinoglenoid notch entrapment would spare the supraspinatus.
Question 2226
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 27-year-old professional volleyball attacker complains of subtle posterior shoulder pain and a subjective decrease in hitting power. Physical exam reveals normal active elevation, 5/5 strength in shoulder abduction, but notable weakness (3/5) in external rotation with the arm at the side. MRI of the shoulder is ordered. Based on the physical exam findings, where is the isolated neural compression most likely located, and what is the classic associated pathologic finding?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch; paralabral cyst
Explanation
The patient exhibits isolated weakness in external rotation (infraspinatus) with preserved abduction (supraspinatus). This indicates suprascapular nerve entrapment distal to the branches supplying the supraspinatus, specifically at the spinoglenoid notch. In overhead athletes, this is classically associated with a paralabral cyst extending from a posterior superior labral tear (SLAP lesion).
Question 2227
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 29-year-old elite volleyball player presents with insidious onset of shoulder weakness. Physical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa with normal bulk of the supraspinatus. Weakness is noted in external rotation. An MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst. Where is the cyst most likely located, and what is the typical associated labral pathology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch; associated with a posterior labral tear
Explanation
Isolated infraspinatus atrophy indicates compression of the suprascapular nerve distal to the innervation of the supraspinatus, which occurs at the spinoglenoid notch. Paralabral cysts in the spinoglenoid notch are classically associated with posterior or posterosuperior labral tears. Fluid is pumped through the labral defect into the notch, forming a cyst that compresses the suprascapular nerve.
Question 2228
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the coracoid process is transferred to the anterior glenoid neck. Postoperatively, the patient is unable to actively flex his elbow and reports decreased sensation over the lateral forearm. Which of the following surgical steps posed the greatest risk to the injured structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Vigorous medial retraction of the conjoint tendon
Explanation
The patient has a musculocutaneous nerve injury (loss of biceps/brachialis motor function and lateral antebrachial cutaneous sensation). The musculocutaneous nerve enters the deep surface of the coracobrachialis (part of the conjoint tendon) approximately 5-8 cm distal to the coracoid tip. Vigorous medial or inferior retraction of the conjoint tendon during the Latarjet procedure places this nerve at high risk of a traction neuropraxia.
Question 2229
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old male with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations undergoes arthroscopic stabilization. Imaging reveals 20% glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. The surgeon performs a Bankart repair and a Remplissage procedure. Which anatomic structure is tenodesed into the Hill-Sachs defect, and what clinical restriction is most commonly observed postoperatively?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Infraspinatus; restricted external rotation
Explanation
The Remplissage procedure involves capsulotenodesis of the posterior capsule and the infraspinatus tendon into the Hill-Sachs defect. This effectively makes the defect extra-articular and prevents it from engaging the anterior glenoid rim. Because the posterior structures are tethered, the most common postoperative restriction is a mild to moderate decrease in external rotation.
Question 2230
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old offensive lineman presents with vague posterior shoulder pain that worsens during blocking maneuvers. The surgeon performs a Kim test to evaluate for a posterior labral tear. Which of the following accurately describes the correct execution of the Kim test?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Patient seated, arm in 90 degrees abduction, axial load applied while elevating arm diagonally upward with a posterior/downward force
Explanation
The Kim test evaluates for a posteroinferior labral tear. With the patient seated, the examiner holds the patient's elbow and the lateral aspect of the proximal humerus. The arm is abducted to 90 degrees, and a strong axial load is applied. The arm is then elevated 45 degrees diagonally upward while the examiner simultaneously applies a downward and posterior force to the proximal humerus. A sudden onset of posterior shoulder pain implies a posteroinferior labral tear.
Question 2231
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A professional baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Physical examination reveals an internal rotation deficit of 25 degrees compared to the non-dominant shoulder, while external rotation is increased by 10 degrees. Which of the following pathomechanical processes is most directly responsible for this glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posteroinferior capsular contracture
Explanation
Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) in overhead throwers is primarily driven by contracture and thickening of the posteroinferior capsule. This contracture shifts the glenohumeral contact point posterosuperiorly during the late cocking phase (abduction and maximal external rotation), leading to increased shear stress on the superior labrum (peel-back mechanism) and internal impingement of the articular-sided rotator cuff against the posterosuperior glenoid.
Question 2232
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 32-year-old elite volleyball player presents with progressive, isolated weakness in external rotation of the shoulder. He denies any acute trauma but reports deep posterior shoulder pain. Clinical examination reveals profound atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa but normal bulk and strength of the supraspinatus. Which of the following intra-articular pathologies is most commonly associated with this specific nerve entrapment syndrome?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior labral tear
Explanation
Isolated infraspinatus weakness with atrophy suggests compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch (after it has already supplied motor branches to the supraspinatus). The most common cause in an overhead athlete is a paralabral ganglion cyst. These cysts are highly associated with posterior or posterosuperior labral tears, which act as a one-way valve allowing synovial fluid to form the cyst in the spinoglenoid notch.
Question 2233
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A patient presents with poorly localized shoulder pain and paresthesias over the lateral deltoid that worsen when the arm is abducted and externally rotated. An MRI reveals fibrous bands compressing structures within the quadrilateral space. Which of the following correctly defines the anatomic borders of the quadrilateral space?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior: Teres minor; Inferior: Teres major; Medial: Long head of triceps; Lateral: Humeral shaft
Explanation
The boundaries of the quadrilateral space are the teres minor (superiorly), teres major (inferiorly), the long head of the triceps (medially), and the surgical neck of the humerus (laterally). Quadrilateral space syndrome results from compression of the axillary nerve and the posterior humeral circumflex artery within this space, often by anomalous fibrous bands.
Question 2234
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 65-year-old sedentary male with a massive, irreparable rotator cuff tear and severe biceps tendinopathy is scheduled for surgery.
The surgeon discusses performing a biceps tenotomy versus a biceps tenodesis. According to highest-level current evidence (systematic reviews and meta-analyses), what is the primary expected difference in clinical outcome between these two procedures in this demographic?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tenotomy has a higher rate of cosmetic 'Popeye' deformity and subjective muscle cramping
Explanation
Current evidence demonstrates no significant difference in objective functional shoulder scores (Constant, ASES) or objective strength between biceps tenotomy and tenodesis, particularly in older, less active patients. However, tenotomy is consistently associated with a higher incidence of cosmetic 'Popeye' deformity (up to 20-30%) and subjective biceps cramping compared to tenodesis. Tenodesis requires slightly longer operative/rehab time but lowers the risk of deformity.
Question 2235
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 21-year-old collegiate javelin thrower presents with chronic posterior shoulder pain.
His pain is highly localized to the late cocking phase of his throwing motion. Arthroscopic evaluation reveals fraying of the posterosuperior labrum and an articular-sided, partial-thickness tear of the posterior supraspinatus and anterior infraspinatus tendons. Which of the following best describes the exact mechanism of 'internal impingement' occurring in this athlete?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pinching of the articular surface of the rotator cuff between the greater tuberosity and the posterosuperior glenoid labrum
Explanation
Internal impingement is a pathologic condition seen almost exclusively in overhead athletes during the late cocking phase of throwing (extreme abduction and external rotation). In this position, the greater tuberosity rotates posteriorly and abuts against the posterosuperior glenoid labrum. This pinches the articular-sided fibers of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons between the bone and the labrum, leading to 'kissing lesions': articular-sided rotator cuff tears and posterosuperior labral fraying/tearing.
Question 2236
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 35-year-old overhead athlete presents with painless weakness in external rotation of the shoulder. Examination reveals atrophy isolated to the infraspinatus fossa. MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst. At which of the following anatomic locations is the nerve compression most likely occurring?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
A paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch compresses the suprascapular nerve after it has innervated the supraspinatus. This results in isolated infraspinatus atrophy and isolated weakness in external rotation without affecting the supraspinatus.
Question 2237
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 60-year-old male with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear and intact subscapularis undergoes a latissimus dorsi tendon transfer. During harvest, the primary neurovascular pedicle must be protected. What is the major arterial supply to the latissimus dorsi muscle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Thoracodorsal artery
Explanation
The primary blood supply to the latissimus dorsi is the thoracodorsal artery, which is a terminal branch of the subscapular artery. Protecting this pedicle and the accompanying thoracodorsal nerve is critical during mobilization for the transfer.
Question 2238
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 42-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain after a fall. On examination, the examiner places the patient's palm on his contralateral shoulder and attempts to lift the hand off the shoulder while the patient resists. Which specific portion of the rotator cuff is best isolated by this test?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior subscapularis
Explanation
This describes the 'Bear Hug' test, which has been shown to be highly sensitive and specific for identifying tears of the superior portion of the subscapularis. The lift-off test is generally more specific for evaluating the inferior portion of the subscapularis.
Question 2239
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old male athlete sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation. An MRI reveals an avulsion of the anterior labrum along with the anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) from the glenoid rim. What is the eponym for this specific lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Bankart lesion
Explanation
A Bankart lesion is defined as an avulsion of the anterior-inferior labrum and the attached inferior glenohumeral ligament complex from the anterior glenoid rim. It is the most common "essential lesion" in traumatic anterior shoulder instability.
Question 2240
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
According to modern quantitative perfusion studies, which vascular structure provides the predominant blood supply to the humeral head, and via which anatomical pathway does it enter?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior circumflex humeral artery via the posterior and inferior capsule
Explanation
Recent studies (e.g., Hettrich et al.) demonstrated that the posterior circumflex humeral artery provides approximately 64% of the blood supply to the humeral head, entering via the posterior capsule, overriding the historical emphasis on the arcuate branch of the anterior circumflex.
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