Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

A 22-year-old male rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A CT scan with 3D reconstruction reveals 23% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate?

A 28-year-old male volleyball player presents with insidious onset of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following is the most likely physical exam finding?

A 32-year-old male weightlifter feels a "pop" in his anterior chest wall while performing a bench press. Examination reveals loss of the anterior axillary fold and weakness in internal rotation and adduction. MRI confirms a complete tear of the pectoralis major at its humeral insertion. What is the recommended treatment?

A 45-year-old male sustains a traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation. After reduction, he has persistent weakness in internal rotation and increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral side. The bear-hug and belly-press tests are positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 22-year-old competitive rugby player sustains his third anterior shoulder dislocation. Imaging reveals an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion and 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 28-year-old elite volleyball player presents with painless weakness in her dominant shoulder. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle. MRI shows a paralabral cyst. Where is the most likely location of the nerve compression?

A 68-year-old man presents with a massive, retracted rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus and entire infraspinatus, with Goutallier stage 4 fatty infiltration. He has preserved active forward elevation to 140 degrees but lacks active external rotation. Radiographs show no glenohumeral arthritis. Which procedure is most appropriate?

A 40-year-old man presents with shoulder pain after a generalized seizure. He holds his arm adducted and internally rotated. He cannot actively or passively externally rotate the shoulder. Radiographs show a "lightbulb" sign. Which associated lesion is most likely present?

A 30-year-old competitive tennis player complains of posterior shoulder pain and numbness over the lateral deltoid. Examination shows point tenderness at the posterior joint line and weakness in external rotation. Arteriogram reveals occlusion of the posterior humeral circumflex artery with shoulder abduction. What are the boundaries of the space involved?

The "terrible triad of the shoulder" typically refers to an anterior shoulder dislocation accompanied by which two additional injuries?

During the physical examination of a patient with suspected rotator cuff pathology, the examiner places the patient's hand behind their back at the lumbar level and asks them to lift the hand away from the back. This test is primarily evaluating the integrity of which structure?

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player with recurrent anterior shoulder instability undergoes a preoperative CT scan. The scan demonstrates a 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 55-year-old laborer presents with an irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He lacks active external rotation and forward elevation but has an intact subscapularis. Which of the following tendon transfers is most appropriate to restore external rotation?

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain. Physical examination shows a Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees compared to the contralateral side. The primary anatomic structure responsible for this finding is:

A 50-year-old male presents with anterior shoulder pain after a fall. He has a positive "belly-press" test. Which of the following physical examination findings would also most likely be positive in this patient?

A 29-year-old professional volleyball player presents with painless weakness of external rotation of the shoulder. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa. The supraspinatus strength and muscle bulk are normal. The most likely site of nerve compression is:

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Imaging reveals a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss defect. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 48-year-old heavy laborer presents with deep anterior shoulder pain. MRI confirms an isolated Type II SLAP tear. Nonoperative management has failed after 6 months. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 35-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. Examination shows atrophy of the infraspinatus with a normal supraspinatus. Where is the most likely location of nerve entrapment?