Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

During shoulder arthroscopy, the "comma sign" is a useful anatomic landmark. It is indicative of a tear and retraction of which of the following structures?

Which physical examination test is considered most specific for evaluating the integrity of the superior portion of the subscapularis tendon?

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player sustains a third anterior shoulder dislocation. An MRI reveals a Bankart lesion and 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. If an open Latarjet procedure is performed, the coracoid graft acts primarily through a "sling effect" to stabilize the joint in abduction and external rotation. This sling effect is created by the conjoint tendon interacting with which structure?

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with isolated weakness of the right shoulder, specifically noting fatigue during the cocking phase of serving. Physical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa with normal supraspinatus bulk and strength. An MRI is most likely to demonstrate an abnormality in which of the following locations?

A 23-year-old baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He has a positive apprehension sign that is relieved by a posterior-directed force on the proximal humerus, but he complains of deep posterior pain rather than instability. Arthroscopic evaluation is most likely to show which of the following?

A 64-year-old right-hand-dominant male presents with persistent right shoulder pain and weakness following a fall onto an outstretched hand 3 months ago. Physical examination demonstrates increased passive external rotation compared to the contralateral shoulder, a positive lift-off test, and a positive belly-press test. Which of the following tendons is predominantly affected?

A 35-year-old man presents with persistent shoulder pain following an electric shock injury.

An axillary radiograph reveals a locked posterior shoulder dislocation with an anterior humeral head defect involving 30% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 55-year-old manual laborer has a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He is being considered for a latissimus dorsi tendon transfer. Which of the following preoperative clinical or radiographic findings is considered an absolute contraindication for this procedure?

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. Examination reveals profound wasting of the infraspinatus fossa, while the supraspinatus fossa is well-preserved.

MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst. Which of the following anatomical locations is the most likely site of nerve compression?

During a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the coracoid process is osteotomized and transferred to the anterior glenoid. Which of the following nerves is at greatest risk of direct injury during the placement of deep medial retractors and mobilization of the coracoid graft?

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Physical examination reveals a positive apprehension test that is relieved by a posterior-directed force on the proximal humerus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 45-year-old man presents with isolated weakness in shoulder external rotation. Atrophy is noted over the infraspinatus fossa, but supraspinatus strength is normal. An MRI is most likely to show a paralabral cyst in which of the following locations?

A 19-year-old contact athlete experiences recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Preoperative imaging reveals a glenoid bone loss of 28%. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate to prevent recurrence?

A 50-year-old man presents with chronic shoulder pain. Physical examination demonstrates a positive belly-press test and an inability to maintain internal rotation against resistance when the hand is lifted off the lower back. These findings are most indicative of a tear involving which structure?

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with persistent anterior shoulder pain. MRI confirms a type II superior labrum anterior to posterior (SLAP) tear. Nonoperative management has failed after 6 months. What is the best next step in management?

A 35-year-old male presents with isolated weakness in external rotation of his right shoulder. He has no pain. Examination reveals marked atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa but a normal supraspinatus fossa. The most likely cause is compression of the suprascapular nerve at which of the following locations?

A 20-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan shows 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate to prevent recurrent dislocation?

Which of the following physical examination findings is most specific for an isolated tear of the subscapularis tendon?