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Question 1961

Topic: Knee Sports

During knee flexion, which bundle of the Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) is the primary restraint to anterior tibial translation?

. Posterolateral bundle
. Anteromedial bundle
. Posteromedial bundle
. Anterolateral bundle
. Meniscofemoral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anteromedial bundle


Explanation

The anteromedial (AM) bundle of the ACL is tight in flexion and acts as the primary restraint to anterior tibial translation at 90 degrees. The posterolateral (PL) bundle is tight in extension and provides rotational stability.

Question 1962

Topic: Knee Sports

During a physical examination of the knee, the pivot shift test is performed to assess anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) integrity. The test primarily evaluates the function of which ACL bundle, and in what position does the tibia typically subluxate?

. Anteromedial bundle; the tibia subluxates in flexion
. Anteromedial bundle; the tibia subluxates in extension
. Posterolateral bundle; the tibia subluxates in flexion
. Posterolateral bundle; the tibia subluxates in extension
. Both bundles equally; the tibia subluxates in internal rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral bundle; the tibia subluxates in flexion


Explanation

The pivot shift test primarily assesses the rotatory stability provided by the posterolateral (PL) bundle of the ACL. During the test, the tibia subluxates anteriorly when the knee is in extension and reduces with a clunk as the knee flexes past 20-30 degrees.

Question 1963

Topic: Knee Sports

During anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft, which of the following is the most common cause of early graft failure (within the first 6 months)?

. Immunologic graft rejection
. Traumatic re-rupture from high-energy impact
. Surgical technique errors (e.g., non-anatomic tunnel placement)
. Inadequate graft vascularization
. Deep joint infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgical technique errors (e.g., non-anatomic tunnel placement)


Explanation

The most common cause of early failure in ACL reconstruction is technical error, most notably non-anatomic tunnel placement. An anteriorly placed femoral tunnel, for instance, leads to excessive tension on the graft during flexion, causing stretching or premature rupture.

Question 1964

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old female soccer player sustains a non-contact pivoting injury to her right knee. Radiographs reveal a small elliptical avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau just distal to the articular surface. This radiographic finding is pathognomonic for an injury to which of the following structures?

. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Medial collateral ligament
. Posterolateral corner
. Iliotibial band

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

The described finding is a Segond fracture, which is an avulsion of the anterolateral capsule of the knee. It is considered a pathognomonic radiographic sign for an underlying anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear.

Question 1965

Topic: Knee Sports
A 30-year-old sustains a full-thickness articular cartilage defect of the medial femoral condyle. Microfracture is performed to promote healing. The resulting repair tissue that eventually fills the defect relies primarily on which collagen type?
. Type I collagen
. Type II collagen
. Type III collagen
. Type IX collagen
. Type X collagen

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type I collagen


Explanation

Microfracture penetrates the subchondral bone to release marrow elements, leading to the formation of a fibrocartilage clot. Unlike native hyaline articular cartilage (which is rich in Type II collagen), the resulting fibrocartilage is primarily composed of Type I collagen and has inferior wear properties.

Question 1966

Topic: Knee Sports

Which of the following structures is considered the primary static stabilizer to external tibial rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion?

. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Popliteofibular ligament
. Lateral collateral ligament
. Popliteus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Popliteofibular ligament


Explanation

The popliteofibular ligament (PFL), along with the popliteus tendon and the lateral collateral ligament (LCL), forms the primary components of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee. The PFL and popliteus tendon are the primary stabilizers to external rotation, particularly evaluated at 30 degrees of flexion, whereas the LCL is the primary restraint to varus stress.

Question 1967

Topic: Knee Sports

During an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, the surgeon elects to drill the femoral tunnel independently through an anteromedial (AM) portal rather than using a transtibial technique. Which of the following is the primary biomechanical advantage of the AM portal technique?

. More vertical graft orientation
. Shorter tibial tunnel length
. Improved rotational stability
. Decreased risk of posterior wall blowout
. Elimination of the need for suspensory fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Improved rotational stability


Explanation

Drilling the femoral tunnel through an anteromedial portal allows for anatomic placement of the femoral footprint (lower and further posterior in the notch with the knee in hyperflexion). This creates a more oblique graft orientation, which is biomechanically proven to better restore rotational stability compared to the vertical graft orientation typically resulting from a transtibial approach.

Question 1968

Topic: Knee Sports

A 45-year-old active male presents with medial compartment knee osteoarthritis and varus malalignment. He is being considered for a high tibial osteotomy (HTO). Which of the following preoperative clinical findings is generally considered an absolute contraindication for performing an HTO?

. Age greater than 40 years
. A flexion contracture of 20 degrees
. Intact anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Body Mass Index (BMI) of 28
. Range of motion from 0 to 120 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A flexion contracture of 20 degrees


Explanation

High Tibial Osteotomy (HTO) relies on redistributing weight-bearing forces to the relatively preserved lateral compartment. Absolute contraindications typically include inflammatory arthritis, a flexion contracture greater than 15 degrees, knee flexion less than 90 degrees, severe patellofemoral arthritis, and significant instability (unless concurrently addressed). A 20-degree flexion contracture prevents normal gait biomechanics and results in poor outcomes post-HTO.

Question 1969

Topic: Knee Sports

During the physical examination of a 22-year-old athlete, the Dial test demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees. Which structure is most likely injured?

. Posterolateral corner (PLC) only
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) only
. Both PLC and PCL
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) only
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral corner (PLC) only


Explanation

The Dial test evaluates external rotation of the tibia. Increased external rotation (>10 degrees compared to the normal side) at 30 degrees only indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. Increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees indicates injury to both the PLC and the PCL.

Question 1970

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old soccer player sustains a twisting knee injury. On examination, the dial test shows 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side, but symmetric rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. Which structure is most likely injured?

. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Popliteofibular ligament
. Medial patellofemoral ligament
. Superficial medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Popliteofibular ligament


Explanation

An isolated injury to the posterolateral corner (PLC), which includes the popliteofibular ligament, presents with increased external rotation at 30 degrees but not at 90 degrees. Combined PLC and PCL injuries exhibit increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.

Question 1971

Topic: Knee Sports

A 40-year-old male sustains a posterior medial meniscus root tear. Biomechanically, this injury is most equivalent to which of the following?

. A 25% partial meniscectomy
. A 50% partial meniscectomy
. A total meniscectomy
. An anterior horn meniscus tear
. A bucket-handle meniscus tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A total meniscectomy


Explanation

A posterior meniscus root tear completely disrupts the hoop stresses of the meniscus, rendering it biomechanically equivalent to a total meniscectomy. This drastically increases peak contact pressures in the compartment, leading to rapid osteoarthritis.

Question 1972

Topic: Knee Sports

During reconstruction of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), the surgeon must be aware of the native ligament's vascular supply to optimize graft incorporation. The primary blood supply to the native ACL arises from which vessel?

. Lateral inferior genicular artery
. Medial inferior genicular artery
. Middle genicular artery
. Descending genicular artery
. Recurrent tibial artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Middle genicular artery


Explanation

The primary blood supply to the ACL is the middle genicular artery, which branches from the popliteal artery and pierces the posterior joint capsule to supply the cruciate ligaments.

Question 1973

Topic: Knee Sports
Articular cartilage is primarily composed of water, collagen, and proteoglycans. Which type of collagen constitutes the vast majority of the collagenous framework in normal, healthy adult hyaline articular cartilage?
. Type I
. Type II
. Type III
. Type IV
. Type X

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type II


Explanation

Type II collagen accounts for 90-95% of the collagen in healthy hyaline articular cartilage, providing its necessary tensile strength. Fibrocartilage, which often forms after microfracture procedures, is predominantly composed of Type I collagen.

Question 1974

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old skier presents with acute knee swelling after a twisting fall. Plain radiographs reveal an avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau (Segond fracture). This radiographic finding is pathognomonic for an injury to which of the following structures?

. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Medial collateral ligament
. Posterolateral corner
. Popliteus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

A Segond fracture is an avulsion fracture of the anterolateral proximal tibia, representing an avulsion of the anterolateral ligament (ALL) or lateral capsular attachment. It is highly pathognomonic for an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear.

Question 1975

Topic: Knee Sports

In a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, the posterior cruciate ligament is sacrificed. What design feature is primarily responsible for substituting the function of the PCL to achieve physiologic femoral rollback during deep flexion?

. The conforming geometry of the anterior tibial polyethylene lip
. The interaction between the femoral cam and the tibial polyethylene post
. The inherent tension of the medial collateral ligament
. An asymmetrical posterior femoral condylar offset
. The preservation of the anterior cruciate ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The interaction between the femoral cam and the tibial polyethylene post


Explanation

In a posterior-stabilized (PS) total knee arthroplasty, the PCL is excised. To replicate the PCL's normal function of causing posterior translation (rollback) of the femur on the tibia during flexion, a cam mechanism on the femoral component engages with a central post on the tibial polyethylene insert. This engagement mechanically forces the femur to roll back as the knee flexes past a certain point, optimizing the extensor mechanism moment arm and improving maximum flexion.

Question 1976

Topic: Knee Sports

Biomechanical studies have demonstrated that a complete posterior root avulsion of the medial meniscus disrupts the circumferential hoop stresses of the knee. This specific injury leads to medial compartment contact pressures most equivalent to which of the following states?

. An intact, healthy meniscus
. A partial meniscectomy removing 50% of the posterior horn
. A total medial meniscectomy
. An isolated anterior cruciate ligament deficiency
. An isolated posterior cruciate ligament deficiency

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A total medial meniscectomy


Explanation

A complete radial tear or root avulsion of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus breaks the continuity of the meniscal ring, completely abolishing its ability to convert axial loads into circumferential hoop stresses. Biomechanically, this results in medial compartment peak contact pressures and kinematics that are completely equivalent to a total meniscectomy, leading to rapid, progressive osteoarthritis if left untreated.

Question 1977

Topic: Knee Sports

A 28-year-old competitive athlete sustains a high-energy knee injury resulting in a knee dislocation with rupture of the ACL, PCL, and posterolateral corner (PLC). Neurovascular examination reveals intact distal pulses and sensation. After emergent reduction, the knee remains grossly unstable. What is the most appropriate surgical management strategy and timing for this patient?

. Acute repair of all ruptured ligaments within 24-72 hours
. Staged reconstruction, with acute repair of the PLC and delayed reconstruction of the ACL/PCL
. Single-stage reconstruction of all ruptured ligaments once swelling subsides (2-3 weeks post-injury)
. Non-operative management with bracing and rehabilitation
. Arthroscopic debridement followed by 6 weeks of immobilization

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Single-stage reconstruction of all ruptured ligaments once swelling subsides (2-3 weeks post-injury)


Explanation

For multi-ligament knee dislocations without vascular compromise, the current consensus typically favors a single-stage, comprehensive reconstruction of all ruptured ligaments. The optimal timing is generally delayed until acute swelling and inflammation have subsided, typically 2-3 weeks post-injury. This allows for better tissue handling, reduced arthrofibrosis risk, and improved surgical outcomes. Acute repair of multiple ligaments often fails due to poor tissue quality and high tension. Staged reconstruction is an option but can be more complex and prolong recovery; single-stage is preferred for efficiency. Non-operative management is usually reserved for very low-demand patients or those with severe comorbidities and is generally not recommended for athletes with significant instability. Arthroscopic debridement alone does not address gross instability.

Question 1978

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old male sustains a twisting knee injury. Examination reveals a positive Lachman test and joint-line tenderness. MRI confirms an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) rupture and a peripheral longitudinal tear in the "red-red" zone of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. ACL reconstruction and meniscectomy
. Nonoperative management with physical therapy
. ACL reconstruction and meniscal repair
. Isolated meniscal repair
. Isolated ACL reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ACL reconstruction and meniscal repair


Explanation

The medial meniscus tear is in the vascularized "red-red" zone, making it highly amenable to repair. Performing the repair concurrently with ACL reconstruction creates a biologically favorable environment that enhances meniscal healing.

Question 1979

Topic: Knee Sports

When comparing structural properties of various grafts used for anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, which of the following grafts exhibits the highest initial ultimate tensile load prior to physiological incorporation?

. 10-mm Bone-Patellar Tendon-Bone (BPTB)
. Quadrupled Hamstring (Semitendinosus and Gracilis)
. 10-mm Quadriceps tendon with bone block
. Native intact ACL
. Doubled Semitendinosus alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quadrupled Hamstring (Semitendinosus and Gracilis)


Explanation

Biomechanical studies demonstrate that the quadrupled hamstring graft has the highest ultimate tensile load (~4140 N). A 10-mm BPTB has a tensile strength of ~2977 N. A 10-mm quadriceps tendon is ~2185 N. The native, intact ACL has an ultimate tensile load of approximately 2160 N. Despite these differences in initial strength, long-term clinical stability is generally comparable.

Question 1980

Topic: Knee Sports
A 25-year-old female with known Type 1 von Willebrand disease is scheduled for an elective ACL reconstruction. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line preoperative pharmacologic intervention to optimize her hemostasis?
. Prophylactic platelet transfusion
. Administration of fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
. Recombinant Factor VIII infusion
. Administration of Desmopressin (DDAVP)
. Intravenous Vitamin K

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Administration of Desmopressin (DDAVP)


Explanation

Type 1 von Willebrand disease is a quantitative deficiency of von Willebrand factor (vWF). Desmopressin (DDAVP) is a synthetic analog of vasopressin that stimulates the release of preformed vWF and Factor VIII from the Weibel-Palade bodies of endothelial cells. It is the first-line treatment for surgical prophylaxis in patients with Type 1 vWD.