This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Knee Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1861
Topic: Knee Sports
During a surgical reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee, anatomic femoral tunnel placement is critical for restoring normal kinematics. In relation to the popliteus tendon attachment on the lateral femoral epicondyle, where is the anatomical origin of the fibular collateral ligament (FCL)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal and posterior
Explanation
Knowledge of the complex anatomy of the posterolateral corner (PLC) is essential for successful reconstruction. On the lateral femoral condyle, the attachment of the fibular collateral ligament (FCL) is situated approximately 1.4 mm proximal and 3.1 mm posterior to the origin of the popliteus tendon. Misplacement of these tunnels alters knee kinematics, leading to either graft failure or loss of range of motion.
Question 1862
Topic: Knee Sports
A 19-year-old female presents with recurrent lateral patellar instability. Imaging demonstrates an Insall-Salvati ratio of 1.4, a Caton-Deschamps index of 1.3, and a Tibial Tubercle-Trochlear Groove (TT-TG) distance of 22 mm. Which of the following surgical strategies is most appropriate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. MPFL reconstruction with an anteromedializing and distalizing tibial tubercle osteotomy
Explanation
This patient has severe patella alta (Insall-Salvati >1.2) and an abnormal TT-TG distance (>20 mm). A combined distalizing and anteromedializing tibial tubercle osteotomy (Fulkerson-type modified) alongside an MPFL reconstruction is necessary to address both anatomic risk factors.
Question 1863
Topic: Knee Sports
A 30-year-old male sustains a posterior knee injury. Physical examination reveals a positive posterior drawer test. The Dial test demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees. Which structure is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Isolated Posterolateral Corner (PLC)
Explanation
The Dial test evaluates external rotation of the tibia. Increased rotation at 30 degrees of flexion with symmetric rotation at 90 degrees indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. Combined PCL and PLC injuries show increased rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.
Question 1864
Topic: Knee Sports
A 25-year-old athlete presents with lateral knee pain and instability after a hyperextension injury. Physical examination reveals increased external rotation on the dial test of 15 degrees compared to the contralateral knee at 30 degrees of flexion, but symmetric rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterolateral corner
Explanation
An isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury results in increased external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion but symmetric rotation at 90 degrees. If both the PLC and PCL are injured, the dial test will be positive at both 30 and 90 degrees.
Question 1865
Topic: Knee Sports
A 19-year-old female undergoes medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction for recurrent patellar instability. Postoperatively, she complains of severe medial knee pain and restricted flexion. What is the most likely technical error made during femoral tunnel placement?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Placement too proximal and anterior
Explanation
A femoral tunnel placed too proximal and anterior during MPFL reconstruction causes the graft to tighten excessively in knee flexion. This non-isometric placement leads to restricted flexion and severely elevated medial compartment pressures.
Question 1866
Topic: Knee Sports
A 28-year-old football player undergoes posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction. The surgeon decides to use a single-bundle technique to reconstruct the anterolateral (AL) bundle. At what knee flexion angle does the AL bundle normally experience maximum tension?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 90 degrees
Explanation
The anterolateral (AL) bundle of the PCL is the larger of the two bundles and is tightest in deeper knee flexion, reaching maximum tension near 90 degrees. Conversely, the posteromedial (PM) bundle is tightest in knee extension.
Question 1867
Topic: Knee Sports
A 24-year-old skier sustains an acute ACL tear. MRI suggests a posterior horn tear of the medial meniscus at the meniscocapsular junction. Arthroscopic evaluation via a posteromedial portal confirms a ramp lesion. Which of the following biomechanical effects is most exacerbated if this lesion is left untreated?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior tibial translation
Explanation
A meniscal ramp lesion involves the meniscocapsular attachments of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus. If left untreated in an ACL-deficient knee, it significantly increases anterior tibial translation and places higher stress on an ACL graft.
Question 1868
Topic: Knee Sports
A 14-year-old male presents with persistent right knee pain and catching. Radiographs and MRI reveal a 2 cm osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion on the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle. The physes are open, and the cartilage is intact with no subchondral fluid. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Non-weight bearing and activity modification for 3 to 6 months
Explanation
In juvenile patients with open physes and a stable OCD lesion (intact cartilage without subchondral fluid), initial management is non-operative. Activity modification and protected weight-bearing have a high success rate in allowing spontaneous healing.
Question 1869
Topic: Knee Sports
A 24-year-old professional football player sustains a posterolateral corner (PLC) injury of the knee. Which of the following structures is the primary restraint to varus instability at both 0 and 30 degrees of knee flexion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fibular collateral ligament (FCL)
Explanation
The fibular collateral ligament (FCL) is the primary restraint to varus stress at both 0 and 30 degrees of knee flexion. The popliteus tendon and popliteofibular ligament are primary restraints to external rotation.
Question 1870
Topic: Knee Sports
A 19-year-old female undergoes medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction for recurrent patellar dislocations. Postoperatively, she reports severe medial knee pain and stiffness when trying to bend her knee past 60 degrees. What is the most likely technical error made during the surgery?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Femoral tunnel placed too proximal
Explanation
Placing the femoral tunnel too proximal to Schöttle's point makes the MPFL graft non-isometric, causing it to become inappropriately tight in flexion. This leads to increased medial patellofemoral cartilage pressure and stiffness.
Question 1871
Topic: Knee Sports
A 26-year-old male is evaluated following a knee hyperextension injury. Physical examination reveals 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral knee. However, at 90 degrees of flexion, the external rotation is symmetric. What injury pattern does this indicate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Isolated PLC injury
Explanation
A positive dial test (increased external rotation >10 degrees) only at 30 degrees of knee flexion indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. If the asymmetry is present at both 30 and 90 degrees, it indicates a combined PCL and PLC injury.
Question 1872
Topic: Knee Sports
A 20-year-old female runner has recurrent lateral patellar instability. CT imaging demonstrates a tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance of 24 mm with normal patellar height. Alongside MPFL reconstruction, which additional procedure is most indicated?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medializing tibial tubercle osteotomy
Explanation
A TT-TG distance greater than 20 mm is generally considered pathologic and a risk factor for patellar instability. A medializing tibial tubercle osteotomy (e.g., Fulkerson or Elmslie-Trillat) is indicated to correct this abnormal extensor mechanism vector.
Question 1873
Topic: Knee Sports
Which bundle of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is considered the primary restraint to posterior tibial translation at 90 degrees of knee flexion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterolateral bundle
Explanation
The PCL consists of two main bundles: the anterolateral (AL) and posteromedial (PM) bundles. The anterolateral bundle is thicker, stronger, and tightens in flexion, making it the primary restraint to posterior translation at 90 degrees.
Question 1874
Topic: Knee Sports
A 19-year-old female undergoes medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction for recurrent patellar instability. Postoperatively, she reports severe medial knee pain and stiffness in flexion. Radiographs indicate that the femoral tunnel is positioned too proximal and anterior relative to Schöttle's point. What is the primary biomechanical consequence of this specific graft malposition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Graft tension increases excessively as the knee transitions into flexion
Explanation
Femoral tunnels placed too proximal and anterior to Schöttle's point result in a graft that becomes excessively tight in flexion. This limits knee flexion and drastically increases medial patellofemoral contact pressures.
Question 1875
Topic: Knee Sports
During an acute anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction in a 25-year-old athlete, a peripheral tear of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus at the meniscocapsular junction (Ramp lesion) is identified. What is the primary biomechanical consequence of leaving this lesion unrepaired?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increased anterior tibial translation and rotatory instability
Explanation
Ramp lesions disrupt the posterior medial meniscocapsular attachments, which act as important secondary restraints to anterior tibial translation. Failure to repair them during ACL reconstruction leads to significantly increased anterior tibial translation and persistent pivot-shift kinematics.
Question 1876
Topic: Knee Sports
A 35-year-old male sustains a traumatic knee dislocation resulting in ACL, PCL, and posterolateral corner (PLC) tears (Schenck KD III-L). He has normal distal pulses (ABI > 0.9) but exhibits a dense, complete foot drop. What is the most appropriate management regarding his peroneal nerve injury during his planned multiligament knee reconstruction at 3 weeks post-injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Nerve exploration and neurolysis during the PLC reconstruction
Explanation
In a multiligament knee injury with concomitant peroneal nerve palsy, exploration and neurolysis are indicated at the time of the PLC reconstruction to assess the zone of injury and prevent local tethering. Definitive repair, grafting, or nerve transfers are typically delayed if function fails to return after several months.
Question 1877
Topic: Knee Sports
A resident is performing a single-bundle anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. If the femoral tunnel is erroneously placed too far anteriorly (shallow) within the intercondylar notch, what abnormal graft tensioning pattern will result?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tight in flexion, loose in extension
Explanation
Proper femoral tunnel placement is critical for isometric graft tension. A femoral tunnel placed too far anteriorly (anterior to the anatomic footprint) will result in an ACL graft that is excessively tight in flexion (often restricting flexion or stretching the graft) and loose in extension.
Question 1878
Topic: Knee Sports
A 45-year-old male sustains a complete avulsion of the posterior root of the medial meniscus. Biomechanical studies indicate that the resulting contact pressures in the medial compartment of the knee are most functionally equivalent to which of the following conditions?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A total medial meniscectomy
Explanation
The meniscal roots are essential for anchoring the meniscus and converting axial loads into circumferential hoop stresses. Complete avulsion of the posterior medial meniscal root eliminates these hoop stresses and leads to meniscal extrusion, rendering the joint biomechanically equivalent to having undergone a total meniscectomy.
Question 1879
Topic: Knee Sports
You are performing a medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction for recurrent patellar instability. To place the femoral tunnel anatomically, you use Schöttle's point on a strictly lateral fluoroscopic view. Where is this point located relative to key radiographic landmarks?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior to the posterior femoral cortex extension line and proximal to Blumensaat's line
Explanation
Schöttle's point represents the anatomic femoral origin of the MPFL. On a strict lateral radiograph, it is located approximately 1 mm anterior to a line extending from the posterior femoral cortex, 2.5 mm distal to the posterior origin of the medial femoral condyle, and proximal to Blumensaat's line.
Question 1880
Topic: Knee Sports
A 28-year-old male sustains a multi-ligamentous knee injury. Physical examination includes a dial test, which reveals 15 degrees of asymmetric increased external rotation of the tibia at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the uninjured side. However, external rotation is symmetric at 90 degrees of flexion. This pattern isolates injury to which structure(s)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterolateral corner (PLC) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
Explanation
The dial test assesses for posterolateral instability. Asymmetric external rotation of >10 degrees at 30 degrees of flexion only indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. If the asymmetry is present at both 30 degrees and 90 degrees of flexion, it signifies a combined PLC and PCL injury.
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