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Question 1681

Topic: Knee Sports

A 45-year-old female sustains a posterior medial meniscus root tear. Biomechanically, this injury is most equivalent to which of the following?

. Anterior cruciate ligament tear
. Total meniscectomy
. Partial meniscectomy
. Medial collateral ligament sprain
. Posterior cruciate ligament tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total meniscectomy


Explanation

A posterior meniscal root tear disrupts the hoop stresses of the meniscus, leading to extrusion. Biomechanically, it alters contact pressures in the compartment to a degree equivalent to a total meniscectomy.

Question 1682

Topic: Knee Sports

In bone-patellar tendon-bone (BTB) ACL reconstruction, which phase of graft healing is characterized by peak fibroblast proliferation and the beginning of collagen remodeling, but marks the weakest point of the graft?

. Necrosis phase
. Revascularization phase
. Proliferation phase
. Ligamentization phase
. Maturation phase

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revascularization phase


Explanation

The revascularization phase (typically 6-12 weeks post-op) involves robust biologic activity and vessel ingrowth but paradoxically represents the biomechanically weakest period for the graft before complete ligamentization occurs.

Question 1683

Topic: Knee Sports

A 28-year-old male sustains a dashboard injury in a motor vehicle collision. Examination reveals a positive posterior drawer test. The dial test shows a 15-degree increase in external rotation at both 30 degrees and 90 degrees of flexion compared to the contralateral normal knee. Which of the following structures are most likely injured?

. Posterior cruciate ligament only
. Posterior cruciate ligament and posterolateral corner
. Anterior cruciate ligament and posteromedial corner
. Posterior cruciate ligament and medial collateral ligament
. Posterolateral corner only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament and posterolateral corner


Explanation

The Dial test evaluates for injuries to the posterolateral corner (PLC) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). An asymmetric increase of >10 degrees of external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion indicates a PLC injury. If the asymmetry persists or increases at 90 degrees, it indicates a combined PCL and PLC injury.

Question 1684

Topic: Knee Sports

When designing a posterior-stabilized (PS) total knee arthroplasty implant, the interaction between the femoral cam and the tibial post is engineered to replicate the function of which native structure?

. Medial collateral ligament
. Lateral collateral ligament
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Popliteus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

In a posterior-stabilized (PS) TKA, the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is sacrificed. The implant substitutes for the PCL's function (preventing excessive posterior translation of the tibia and inducing femoral rollback during flexion) via the interaction between a cam on the femoral component and a vertical post on the polyethylene tibial insert.

Question 1685

Topic: Knee Sports

During an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, the surgeon drills the femoral tunnel too vertically (high and anterior in the intercondylar notch). Which of the following clinical findings is most likely to result from this non-anatomic tunnel placement?

. Residual rotational instability demonstrated by a positive pivot shift test
. Loss of terminal knee flexion
. Severe anterior knee pain during activity
. Medial joint line tenderness from meniscal impingement
. Premature graft rupture from intercondylar roof impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Residual rotational instability demonstrated by a positive pivot shift test


Explanation

A vertically placed femoral tunnel (common with older transtibial drilling techniques) effectively restores anterior-posterior stability (resulting in a negative Lachman test) but fails to adequately restore rotational stability. This leaves the patient with a persistent positive pivot shift test. Roof impingement with loss of extension is typically due to an anterior tibial tunnel placement.

Question 1686

Topic: Knee Sports

A patient presents with a knee dislocation and a suspected posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. The dial test is performed. Which of the following findings is diagnostic of an isolated PLC injury without an associated PCL tear?

. Increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees of flexion
. Increased external rotation at 30 degrees but normal at 90 degrees of flexion
. Increased external rotation at 90 degrees but normal at 30 degrees of flexion
. Increased internal rotation at 30 degrees of flexion
. Increased valgus laxity at 30 degrees of flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased external rotation at 30 degrees but normal at 90 degrees of flexion


Explanation

The dial test shows increased external rotation of greater than 10 degrees compared to the contralateral side at 30 degrees of flexion in isolated PLC injuries. If external rotation is increased at both 30 and 90 degrees, it indicates a combined PLC and PCL injury.

Question 1687

Topic: Knee Sports

During an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft, the surgeon places the femoral tunnel too far anteriorly. What is the most likely biomechanical consequence of this tunnel malposition?

. The graft will be loose in flexion and normal in extension
. The graft will be tight in flexion and loose in extension
. The graft will lack rotational stability only
. The graft will anatomically impinge on the PCL
. The graft will stretch out during normal straight-line gait

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The graft will be tight in flexion and loose in extension


Explanation

An anteriorly placed femoral tunnel in ACL reconstruction results in a graft that is tight in flexion and loose in extension. This can lead to restricted knee flexion and eventual graft stretching or failure.

Question 1688

Topic: Knee Sports

In a posterior-stabilized (PS) total knee arthroplasty design, what is the primary biomechanical function of the cam-and-post mechanism?

. To substitute for the anterior cruciate ligament
. To prevent varus/valgus instability
. To induce femoral rollback during knee flexion
. To limit knee hyperextension
. To improve medial collateral ligament tension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. To induce femoral rollback during knee flexion


Explanation

In a posterior-stabilized (PS) knee, the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is sacrificed. The PCL's native role includes causing the femur to roll posteriorly on the tibia during deep flexion. The cam on the femoral component engages the post on the tibial insert, mechanically forcing the femur to translate posteriorly (femoral rollback), which clears the posterior tibia and improves maximum flexion.

Question 1689

Topic: Knee Sports

What is the primary function of the "screw-home" mechanism in the normal human knee during terminal extension?

. Internal rotation of the tibia to unlock the joint
. Translation of the patella medially
. Tensioning of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. External rotation of the tibia on the femur to lock the knee in stable extension
. Relaxation of the medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. External rotation of the tibia on the femur to lock the knee in stable extension


Explanation

Because the medial femoral condyle is larger and longer than the lateral condyle, the tibia must externally rotate a few degrees during the final 10-15 degrees of terminal extension. This "locks" the joint in a highly stable position for prolonged standing, reducing muscular energy requirements.

Question 1690

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old athlete sustains a non-contact knee injury with a reported 'pop'. Initial radiographs reveal a small avulsion fracture of the lateral aspect of the proximal tibial plateau. This radiographic finding (Segond fracture) is virtually pathognomonic for an injury to which of the following structures?

. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Lateral collateral ligament
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Medial meniscus
. Posterolateral corner

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

A Segond fracture is an avulsion fracture of the anterolateral tibial plateau, specifically involving the insertion of the anterolateral ligament (ALL) or lateral capsular ligament. It is highly specific (pathognomonic) for a tear of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL).

Question 1691

Topic: Knee Sports

During anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, understanding the functional bundles is key to restoring normal knee kinematics. Which statement correctly describes the tension patterns of the native ACL bundles?

. The anteromedial bundle is tight in extension and the posterolateral bundle is tight in flexion.
. The anteromedial bundle is tight in flexion and the posterolateral bundle is tight in extension.
. Both bundles are tightest at 90 degrees of flexion.
. The posterolateral bundle restricts anterior translation most effectively at 90 degrees of flexion.
. The anteromedial bundle provides the main restraint to internal rotation in full extension.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The anteromedial bundle is tight in extension and the posterolateral bundle is tight in flexion.


Explanation

The ACL consists of two main bundles named for their tibial insertion: anteromedial (AM) and posterolateral (PL). The AM bundle tightens in flexion, providing the primary restraint to anterior translation at 90 degrees of flexion. The PL bundle is tight in extension, providing rotational stability and limiting anterior translation near full extension.

Question 1692

Topic: Knee Sports

The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is the primary restraint to posterior tibial translation. Which of the following accurately describes its functional bundle anatomy and biomechanics?

. The anterolateral bundle is tight in flexion; the posteromedial bundle is tight in extension.
. The anterolateral bundle is tight in extension; the posteromedial bundle is tight in flexion.
. Both bundles are tightest in full extension.
. The bundles run strictly parallel without crossing each other in any degree of flexion.
. The anteromedial bundle is tight in flexion; the posterolateral bundle is tight in extension.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The anterolateral bundle is tight in flexion; the posteromedial bundle is tight in extension.


Explanation

The PCL consists of the larger anterolateral (AL) bundle and the smaller posteromedial (PM) bundle. The AL bundle is tight in flexion, whereas the PM bundle is tight in extension. This is conceptually the reverse of the ACL bundles, where the AM is tight in flexion and PL in extension.

Question 1693

Topic: Knee Sports
Anatomic reconstruction of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) requires precise femoral tunnel placement. Where is the normal anatomical footprint of the MPFL on the femur located in relation to palpable osseous landmarks?
. Proximal to the adductor tubercle
. Distal to the adductor tubercle and proximal to the medial epicondyle
. Distal to the medial epicondyle
. Anterior to the adductor tubercle
. Directly on the medial joint line

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal to the adductor tubercle and proximal to the medial epicondyle


Explanation

The femoral footprint of the MPFL is located in a saddle-like depression. It is situated distal to the adductor tubercle, and proximal and slightly posterior to the medial epicondyle. Accurate identification of this site (radiographically approximated by Schöttle's point) is crucial for a successful MPFL reconstruction to ensure isometric graft behavior.

Question 1694

Topic: Knee Sports

The popliteofibular ligament is a primary stabilizer against external rotation of the tibia. It originates from the popliteus tendon and attaches to which anatomical structure?

. Gerdy's tubercle
. Fibular styloid
. Lateral tibial plateau
. Anterior fibular head
. Tibial tubercle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gerdy's tubercle


Explanation

The popliteofibular ligament arises from the popliteus musculotendinous junction and inserts on the posteromedial aspect of the fibular styloid. It is a crucial isometric component of the posterolateral corner of the knee.

Question 1695

Topic: Knee Sports

During a posterolateral approach to the knee for ligamentous reconstruction, the surgeon identifies the structures of the posterolateral corner. What is the correct anatomical relationship of the popliteus tendon footprint on the lateral femoral condyle relative to the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) origin?

. Proximal and anterior
. Proximal and posterior
. Distal and anterior
. Distal and posterior
. Directly superficial

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal and anterior


Explanation

On the lateral femoral condyle, the popliteus tendon inserts in the popliteal sulcus, which is located distal and anterior to the origin of the lateral collateral ligament. This relationship is critical during anatomical posterolateral corner (PLC) reconstructions.

Question 1696

Topic: Knee Sports

A 48-year-old woman had an 8-month history of spontaneous onset of left medial knee pain. She was otherwise healthy with an unremarkable past medical history. Prior to the onset of knee pain, she jogged,played tennis, and golfed regularly. She wished to remain active. Examination showed a fit woman witha BMI of 26, a stable left knee with full range of motion, and some mild medial joint line tenderness.Radiograph results were normal. An MRI scan showed diffuse grade 3 and a focal area of grade 4 chondromalacia on the medial femoral condyle. The medial meniscus had a degenerative signal but no tear. The remainder of the knee showed no additional pathology. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

. Lateral heal wedge
. Low-impact aerobic exercises
. Glucosamine 1500 mg/day and chondroitin sulfate 800 mg/day
. Arthroscopic debridement and microfracture of the focal area of grade 4 chondromalacia to reduce risk for progression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral heal wedge


Explanation

This patient has early medial compartmental osteoarthritis of her knee. According to the 2008 AAOS Clinical Practice Guideline, Treatment of Osteoarthritis of the Knee (Non-Arthroplasty), there is Level 1 evidence and an “A” recommendation for the use of low-impact aerobic exercises. The guideline also has “A” recommendations with Level 1 evidence indicating that glucosamine and chondroitin should not be prescribed and that arthroscopic debridement not be performed in the absence of symptoms of a meniscal tear or loose body. Lateral heal wedge is not appropriate; the AAOS guideline provides a “B” recommendation with Level 2 evidence indicating that a lateral heal wedge not be prescribed.---

Question 1697

Topic: Knee Sports

The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) consists of two bundles: the anteromedial (AM) and posterolateral (PL). When the knee is extended, which statement best describes the tension of these bundles?

. Both bundles are equally tense.
. Both bundles are lax.
. The PL bundle is tense and the AM bundle is lax.
. The AM bundle is tense and the PL bundle is lax.
. The PL bundle tension varies with rotation but not flexion/extension.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Both bundles are equally tense.


Explanation

In knee extension, the posterolateral (PL) bundle is tense, whereas the anteromedial (AM) bundle is relatively lax. Conversely, in knee flexion, the AM bundle becomes tense and the PL bundle becomes lax. The PL bundle is primarily responsible for rotational stability, which is most critical near extension.

Question 1698

Topic: Knee Sports
In a patient with recurrent patellar instability, reconstruction of the MPFL is planned. Where is the normal anatomic femoral attachment of the MPFL located?
. Anterior to the medial epicondyle and distal to the adductor tubercle
. Posterior to the medial epicondyle and proximal to the adductor tubercle
. Between the adductor tubercle proximally and medial epicondyle distally, and posterior to both
. Just distal to the medial epicondyle
. Anterior to the adductor tubercle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Between the adductor tubercle proximally and medial epicondyle distally, and posterior to both


Explanation

Schöttle's point identifies the radiographic femoral footprint of the MPFL. Anatomically, it is located in a saddle between the adductor tubercle proximally and the medial epicondyle distally, and slightly posterior to both.

Question 1699

Topic: Knee Sports

A 45-year-old female presents with acute posterior knee pain and a 'pop' while squatting. MRI reveals a medial meniscus posterior root tear. Which of the following biomechanical consequences is most likely if left untreated?

. Decreased contact pressure in the medial compartment
. Loss of hoop stresses equivalent to a total meniscectomy
. Increased anterior tibial translation
. Varus thrust during swing phase
. Isolated patellofemoral osteoarthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased contact pressure in the medial compartment


Explanation

A meniscal root tear disrupts the circumferential hoop stresses of the meniscus, causing it to extrude. Biomechanically, this is equivalent to a total meniscectomy, leading to significantly increased contact pressures and rapid cartilage degeneration in the involved compartment.

Question 1700

Topic: Knee Sports

A patient undergoes reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee. The reconstruction includes the fibular collateral ligament (FCL), popliteus tendon (PT), and popliteofibular ligament (PFL). What is the primary restraint to varus opening at 30 degrees of knee flexion?

. Popliteus tendon
. Popliteofibular ligament
. Fibular collateral ligament
. Iliotibial band
. Biceps femoris tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Popliteus tendon


Explanation

The fibular collateral ligament (FCL, or LCL) is the primary restraint to varus stress at all angles of knee flexion, but it is clinically tested and most isolated at 30 degrees of flexion. The PT and PFL are primary restraints to external rotation.