Menu

Question 1501

Topic: Knee Sports
A 16-year-old female suffers a lateral patellar dislocation resulting in an incompetent medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL). Where is the correct anatomic femoral footprint of the MPFL located radiographically?
. Proximal to the adductor tubercle
. Distal to the medial epicondyle
. Anterior to the medial epicondyle
. Distal to the adductor tubercle and proximal to the medial epicondyle
. Posterior to the adductor magnus insertion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal to the adductor tubercle and proximal to the medial epicondyle


Explanation

The femoral attachment of the MPFL (often radiographically defined by Schöttle's point) sits in the saddle between the adductor tubercle (which is proximal) and the medial epicondyle (which is distal).

Question 1502

Topic: Knee Sports

During a medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction in a 16-year-old female with recurrent patellar dislocations, the surgeon identifies the anatomic femoral attachment site using fluoroscopy. Where is this anatomic attachment located relative to the medial femoral epicondyle and adductor tubercle?

. Proximal to Blumensaat line and anterior to the posterior femoral cortex
. Distal to the adductor tubercle and anterior to the medial epicondyle
. In a saddle-shaped sulcus between the adductor tubercle and the medial epicondyle
. Distal to Blumensaat line and posterior to the medial epicondyle
. Directly at the center of the medial femoral condyle articular cartilage

Correct Answer & Explanation

. In a saddle-shaped sulcus between the adductor tubercle and the medial epicondyle


Explanation

The anatomic femoral attachment of the MPFL is located in a saddle-shaped sulcus just distal to the adductor tubercle and proximal to the medial epicondyle. Precise anatomic graft placement is critical to avoid overtightening the graft in flexion and altering patellofemoral kinematics.

Question 1503

Topic: Knee Sports

A 55-year-old patient experiences a sudden pop in the posterior knee while descending stairs. MRI confirms a complete posterior root tear of the medial meniscus. What is the most significant biomechanical consequence of this specific injury if left untreated?

. Decreased joint space narrowing on standing radiographs
. Conversion of axial loads into physiological hoop stresses
. Altered tibiofemoral contact mechanics equivalent to a total meniscectomy
. Increased secondary stabilization of the anterior cruciate ligament
. Decreased peak contact pressures in the medial compartment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Altered tibiofemoral contact mechanics equivalent to a total meniscectomy


Explanation

A posterior root tear of the medial meniscus disrupts the continuity of the meniscal ring, abolishing its ability to convert axial loads into hoop stresses. Biomechanically, this failure leads to immediate meniscal extrusion and profoundly increased peak contact pressures equivalent to a total meniscectomy.

Question 1504

Topic: Knee Sports

An 8-year-old male (Tanner stage 1) sustains a complete midsubstance anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear while skiing. He has significant subjective instability and giving way with daily activities. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment option to minimize the risk of growth arrest?

. Standard transphyseal bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) reconstruction
. Iliotibial band physeal-sparing extra-articular reconstruction
. Nonoperative management with bracing until skeletal maturity is reached
. Transphyseal quadrupled hamstring reconstruction with suspensory fixation
. Primary repair of the anterior cruciate ligament with internal bracing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliotibial band physeal-sparing extra-articular reconstruction


Explanation

In prepubescent children (Tanner stage 1) with significant remaining growth potential, physeal-sparing ACL reconstruction techniques are indicated to prevent physeal injury and limb deformity. An iliotibial band extra-articular over-the-top reconstruction (e.g., Micheli/Kocher technique) safely addresses instability without crossing the open physes.

Question 1505

Topic: Knee Sports

A 45-year-old male presents with acute medial knee pain and a "pop" felt while deep squatting. MRI reveals a medial meniscal posterior root tear with 4 mm of meniscal extrusion. If left untreated, this injury alters knee biomechanics most similarly to which of the following?

. Total medial meniscectomy
. Anterior cruciate ligament tear
. Partial medial meniscectomy
. Posterior cruciate ligament tear
. Medial collateral ligament sprain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total medial meniscectomy


Explanation

A complete posterior root tear of the medial meniscus eliminates hoop stresses, resulting in tibiofemoral contact pressures equivalent to a total medial meniscectomy. This biomechanical failure leads to rapid progression of osteoarthritis if not surgically repaired.

Question 1506

Topic: Knee Sports
A 28-year-old male strikes his knee on the dashboard during a motor vehicle collision. Examination reveals a grade III posterior drawer at 90 degrees of knee flexion. Which bundle of the torn ligament normally provides the primary restraint to posterior tibial translation at this flexion angle?
. Posteromedial bundle of the PCL
. Anterolateral bundle of the PCL
. Posterolateral bundle of the ACL
. Anteromedial bundle of the ACL
. Meniscofemoral ligaments

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterolateral bundle of the PCL


Explanation

The anterolateral bundle of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is tightest in flexion and serves as the primary restraint to posterior tibial translation at 90 degrees. The posteromedial bundle is tightest in extension.

Question 1507

Topic: Knee Sports

A 45-year-old active female feels a "pop" in her posterior knee while descending stairs. MRI shows medial meniscus extrusion of 4 mm and a radial cleft at the posterior horn root. What are the biomechanical consequences of this specific injury if left untreated?

. Decreased tibiofemoral contact area and increased peak contact pressure
. Increased tibiofemoral contact area and decreased peak contact pressure
. No significant change in contact pressure
. Immediate development of a fixed varus bony deformity
. Increased tension on the anterior cruciate ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased tibiofemoral contact area and increased peak contact pressure


Explanation

A posterior medial meniscus root tear completely disrupts circumferential hoop stresses, rendering the meniscus functionally equivalent to a total meniscectomy. This drastically decreases tibiofemoral contact area and increases peak contact pressures, leading to rapid chondrolysis.

Question 1508

Topic: Knee Sports

A 16-year-old female experiences an acute lateral patellar dislocation while dancing, which spontaneously reduces. MRI demonstrates a complete, isolated tear of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL). At what anatomical location does the MPFL most frequently tear in acute, primary patellar dislocations?

. Mid-substance of the ligament
. At its insertion on the superomedial patella
. At its femoral attachment near the adductor tubercle
. At its tibial attachment on the medial meniscus
. At its insertion on the medial epicondyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. At its femoral attachment near the adductor tubercle


Explanation

In acute primary lateral patellar dislocations, the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) most commonly fails at its femoral origin. This attachment is located in the anatomic saddle region between the adductor tubercle and the medial epicondyle.

Question 1509

Topic: Knee Sports

A 28-year-old male presents with knee pain after sustaining a blow to the anteromedial tibia. Physical examination reveals a positive dial test showing 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral knee. At 90 degrees of flexion, the external rotation normalizes to match the uninjured side. Which structure(s) is/are injured?

. Posterior cruciate ligament only
. Posterolateral corner only
. Both posterior cruciate ligament and posterolateral corner
. Anterior cruciate ligament only
. Medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral corner only


Explanation

Increased external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion that normalizes at 90 degrees indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. Combined PCL and PLC injuries typically show increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.

Question 1510

Topic: Knee Sports
During a medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction for recurrent patellar instability, the surgeon uses fluoroscopy to identify Schöttle's point for the femoral tunnel. Where is this anatomic origin located radiographically?
. Distal and anterior to the medial epicondyle
. Proximal and posterior to the medial epicondyle
. Directly over the adductor tubercle
. Distal to the adductor tubercle on the posterior femoral condyle
. In the center of the trochlear groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal and posterior to the medial epicondyle


Explanation

Schöttle's point describes the radiographic isometric origin of the MPFL. It is located just proximal and posterior to the medial epicondyle and slightly distal to the adductor tubercle.

Question 1511

Topic: Knee Sports
A 16-year-old female presents with recurrent lateral patellar instability and is scheduled for a medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction. During the procedure, the femoral tunnel is inadvertently placed too proximal and anterior to Schöttle's point. What is the primary biomechanical consequence of this malpositioning?
. Increased graft tension in deep knee flexion
. Increased graft tension in full knee extension
. Development of patella baja
. Unrestricted lateral patellar translation in flexion
. Medial patellar subluxation in extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased graft tension in deep knee flexion


Explanation

Placing the femoral tunnel for MPFL reconstruction too proximal and anterior to Schöttle's point results in non-isometric behavior. This specifically causes increased graft tension during knee flexion, which can lead to postoperative stiffness, graft failure, or medial patellofemoral cartilage overload.

Question 1512

Topic: Knee Sports

A 19-year-old elite female soccer player undergoes primary anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. Which of the following clinical scenarios is considered the strongest indication for adding a concomitant lateral extra-articular tenodesis (LET) or anterolateral ligament (ALL) reconstruction?

. Grade 1 pivot shift on exam under anesthesia
. Concomitant medial meniscal body tear
. Patient age older than 25 years
. Grade 3 (high-grade) explosive pivot shift on exam under anesthesia
. Concomitant Grade 1 medial collateral ligament (MCL) sprain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Grade 3 (high-grade) explosive pivot shift on exam under anesthesia


Explanation

Indications for concomitant LET or ALL reconstruction during ACL reconstruction include a high-grade pivot shift, chronic ACL deficiency, young age (<20 years) with high-level pivot-shift sports participation, and revision ACL reconstruction.

Question 1513

Topic: Knee Sports

A 24-year-old professional football player sustains an acute ACL tear. MRI also demonstrates an avulsion of the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus directly from its tibial root attachment. If left completely untreated, the biomechanical consequence of this meniscal injury most closely mimics that of:

. A small radial tear of the anterior horn
. A total meniscectomy
. A partial meniscectomy
. A parameniscal cyst
. A discoid meniscus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A total meniscectomy


Explanation

A meniscal root tear disrupts the crucial hoop stresses of the meniscus, leading to radial extrusion under axial load. Biomechanically, an untreated root tear results in tibiofemoral contact pressures that are nearly equivalent to those seen after a total meniscectomy.

Question 1514

Topic: Knee Sports

A 45-year-old active male presents with acute medial knee pain after a deep squat. MRI reveals a complete radial tear at the posterior root of the medial meniscus with 4 mm of meniscal extrusion. What is the primary biomechanical consequence if this injury is left untreated?

. Increased contact pressure equivalent to a total meniscectomy
. Decreased peak contact pressure in the medial compartment
. Increased tension on the anterior cruciate ligament
. Medial shift of the mechanical axis of the lower extremity
. Prevention of early osteoarthritis development due to stress offloading

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased contact pressure equivalent to a total meniscectomy


Explanation

A complete posterior root tear of the medial meniscus disrupts hoop stresses, rendering the meniscus nonfunctional. Biomechanically, this results in peak tibiofemoral contact pressures equivalent to those seen after a total meniscectomy.

Question 1515

Topic: Knee Sports

A 30-year-old female skier sustains a high-energy knee dislocation. Examination reveals absent ACL, PCL, and posterolateral corner (PLC) function. She has palpable but slightly diminished distal pulses. Which of the following is the most crucial step in her immediate post-injury management prior to any operative planning?

. Immediate MRI of the knee to grade the ligamentous injuries
. Application of a hinged knee brace locked in extension
. Measurement of Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) and possible CT angiogram
. Aspiration of the knee hemarthrosis to relieve pain
. Immediate surgical reconstruction of all torn ligaments

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Measurement of Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) and possible CT angiogram


Explanation

Vascular injury (specifically the popliteal artery) is a limb-threatening complication of knee dislocations. Measurement of ABI is mandatory; an ABI less than 0.9 necessitates a CT angiogram or immediate vascular surgery consultation.

Question 1516

Topic: Knee Sports

A 24-year-old football player complains of posterior knee pain and instability. Examination demonstrates a positive posterior drawer test and increased external rotation of the tibia at both 30 and 90 degrees of knee flexion compared to the uninjured side. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Isolated PCL injury
. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
. Combined PCL and posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
. Combined ACL and medial collateral ligament (MCL) injury
. Isolated popliteus tendon rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Combined PCL and posterolateral corner (PLC) injury


Explanation

Increased tibial external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees of flexion indicates a combined PCL and posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. An isolated PLC injury typically demonstrates increased external rotation only at 30 degrees.

Question 1517

Topic: Knee Sports

A 16-year-old female dancer has recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. Her tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance is measured at 22 mm on MRI. She has normal patellar height. Which surgical procedure addresses her specific anatomic risk factor?

. Medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction alone
. Lateral retinacular release alone
. Medializing tibial tubercle osteotomy
. Distalizing tibial tubercle osteotomy
. Trochleoplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medializing tibial tubercle osteotomy


Explanation

A TT-TG distance >20 mm is considered pathologic and mechanically lateralizes the extensor mechanism. A medializing tibial tubercle osteotomy (often combined with MPFL reconstruction) directly corrects this abnormal lateral force vector.

Question 1518

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old soccer player has a symptomatic 3.5 cm^2 full-thickness chondral defect on the weight-bearing surface of the medial femoral condyle. He has failed conservative management. Which cartilage restoration technique is most appropriate?

. Microfracture
. Osteochondral autograft transfer (OATS)
. Autologous chondrocyte implantation (ACI)
. Arthroscopic debridement and lavage
. Unicompartmental knee arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Autologous chondrocyte implantation (ACI)


Explanation

Autologous chondrocyte implantation (ACI) is indicated for large (>2 to 4 cm^2) full-thickness chondral defects in young, active patients. Microfracture and OATS are typically reserved for smaller defects (usually <2 cm^2).

Question 1519

Topic: Knee Sports

An 8-year-old girl presents with a painless clicking and popping sound in her knee during extension. MRI reveals an abnormally thickened meniscus. The Wrisberg variant of this specific condition is characterized by the absence of which of the following stabilizing structures?

. Posterior meniscotibial (coronary) ligaments
. Anterior horn attachment to the tibia
. Meniscofemoral ligament of Wrisberg
. Transverse intermeniscal ligament
. Anterior cruciate ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior meniscotibial (coronary) ligaments


Explanation

The patient has a discoid meniscus. The Wrisberg variant lacks the normal posterior meniscotibial (coronary) ligaments, leaving the posterior horn hypermobile and attached only by the meniscofemoral ligament of Wrisberg.

Question 1520

Topic: Knee Sports

A 10-year-old girl with widely open physes sustains a mid-substance anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. Surgical reconstruction is planned. To minimize the risk of physeal arrest, particularly at the distal femur and proximal tibia, which technique is most appropriate?

. Epiphyseal-based intra-articular reconstruction (e.g., using iliotibial band)
. Transphyseal reconstruction with a 10-mm bone-patellar tendon-bone graft
. Rigid transphyseal fixation utilizing large interference screws across the physis
. Extra-articular tenodesis without any intra-articular graft
. Direct primary repair of the mid-substance tear with suture anchors

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Epiphyseal-based intra-articular reconstruction (e.g., using iliotibial band)


Explanation

In prepubescent children with significant growth remaining (Tanner stage 1 or 2), a physeal-sparing (epiphyseal or extra-articular/intra-articular combination like the MacIntosh technique) reconstruction minimizes the risk of growth arrest by avoiding drilling across the open physes.