Question 1501
Topic: Knee SportsCorrect Answer & Explanation
. Distal to the adductor tubercle and proximal to the medial epicondyle
Practice Set 76 of 102
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Knee Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Distal to the adductor tubercle and proximal to the medial epicondyle
During a medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction in a 16-year-old female with recurrent patellar dislocations, the surgeon identifies the anatomic femoral attachment site using fluoroscopy. Where is this anatomic attachment located relative to the medial femoral epicondyle and adductor tubercle?
. In a saddle-shaped sulcus between the adductor tubercle and the medial epicondyle
A 55-year-old patient experiences a sudden pop in the posterior knee while descending stairs. MRI confirms a complete posterior root tear of the medial meniscus. What is the most significant biomechanical consequence of this specific injury if left untreated?
. Altered tibiofemoral contact mechanics equivalent to a total meniscectomy
An 8-year-old male (Tanner stage 1) sustains a complete midsubstance anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear while skiing. He has significant subjective instability and giving way with daily activities. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment option to minimize the risk of growth arrest?
. Iliotibial band physeal-sparing extra-articular reconstruction
A 45-year-old male presents with acute medial knee pain and a "pop" felt while deep squatting. MRI reveals a medial meniscal posterior root tear with 4 mm of meniscal extrusion. If left untreated, this injury alters knee biomechanics most similarly to which of the following?
. Total medial meniscectomy
. Anterolateral bundle of the PCL
A 45-year-old active female feels a "pop" in her posterior knee while descending stairs. MRI shows medial meniscus extrusion of 4 mm and a radial cleft at the posterior horn root. What are the biomechanical consequences of this specific injury if left untreated?
. Decreased tibiofemoral contact area and increased peak contact pressure
A 16-year-old female experiences an acute lateral patellar dislocation while dancing, which spontaneously reduces. MRI demonstrates a complete, isolated tear of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL). At what anatomical location does the MPFL most frequently tear in acute, primary patellar dislocations?
. At its femoral attachment near the adductor tubercle
A 28-year-old male presents with knee pain after sustaining a blow to the anteromedial tibia. Physical examination reveals a positive dial test showing 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral knee. At 90 degrees of flexion, the external rotation normalizes to match the uninjured side. Which structure(s) is/are injured?
. Posterolateral corner only
. Proximal and posterior to the medial epicondyle
. Increased graft tension in deep knee flexion
A 19-year-old elite female soccer player undergoes primary anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. Which of the following clinical scenarios is considered the strongest indication for adding a concomitant lateral extra-articular tenodesis (LET) or anterolateral ligament (ALL) reconstruction?
. Grade 3 (high-grade) explosive pivot shift on exam under anesthesia
A 24-year-old professional football player sustains an acute ACL tear. MRI also demonstrates an avulsion of the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus directly from its tibial root attachment. If left completely untreated, the biomechanical consequence of this meniscal injury most closely mimics that of:
. A total meniscectomy
A 45-year-old active male presents with acute medial knee pain after a deep squat. MRI reveals a complete radial tear at the posterior root of the medial meniscus with 4 mm of meniscal extrusion. What is the primary biomechanical consequence if this injury is left untreated?
. Increased contact pressure equivalent to a total meniscectomy
A 30-year-old female skier sustains a high-energy knee dislocation. Examination reveals absent ACL, PCL, and posterolateral corner (PLC) function. She has palpable but slightly diminished distal pulses. Which of the following is the most crucial step in her immediate post-injury management prior to any operative planning?
. Measurement of Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI) and possible CT angiogram
A 24-year-old football player complains of posterior knee pain and instability. Examination demonstrates a positive posterior drawer test and increased external rotation of the tibia at both 30 and 90 degrees of knee flexion compared to the uninjured side. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Combined PCL and posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
A 16-year-old female dancer has recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. Her tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance is measured at 22 mm on MRI. She has normal patellar height. Which surgical procedure addresses her specific anatomic risk factor?
. Medializing tibial tubercle osteotomy
A 22-year-old soccer player has a symptomatic 3.5 cm^2 full-thickness chondral defect on the weight-bearing surface of the medial femoral condyle. He has failed conservative management. Which cartilage restoration technique is most appropriate?
. Autologous chondrocyte implantation (ACI)
An 8-year-old girl presents with a painless clicking and popping sound in her knee during extension. MRI reveals an abnormally thickened meniscus. The Wrisberg variant of this specific condition is characterized by the absence of which of the following stabilizing structures?
. Posterior meniscotibial (coronary) ligaments
A 10-year-old girl with widely open physes sustains a mid-substance anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. Surgical reconstruction is planned. To minimize the risk of physeal arrest, particularly at the distal femur and proximal tibia, which technique is most appropriate?
. Epiphyseal-based intra-articular reconstruction (e.g., using iliotibial band)