This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Knee Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1041
Topic: Knee Sports
A 17-year-old female soccer player sustains a noncontact deceleration injury to her knee, accompanied by a 'pop'.
Which of the following is an established intrinsic skeletal risk factor for this specific ligamentous injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increased posterior tibial slope
Explanation
An increased posterior tibial slope is a well-established bony risk factor for noncontact anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tears. Other intrinsic risk factors include a narrow intercondylar notch, increased generalized joint laxity, and female gender.
Question 1042
Topic: Knee Sports
A 30-year-old male presents with knee pain after a dashboard injury. Physical examination reveals increased external tibial rotation of 15 degrees at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees compared to the normal knee. Which structure is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Isolated posterolateral corner
Explanation
A positive dial test at 30 degrees of knee flexion that corrects at 90 degrees of flexion indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. Asymmetry at both 30 and 90 degrees would indicate a combined PCL and PLC injury.
Question 1043
Topic: Knee Sports
A 25-year-old gymnast presents with recurrent lateral patellar instability. An MRI indicates a torn medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL). During surgical reconstruction, where should the femoral tunnel be placed anatomically?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Distal to the adductor tubercle and proximal to the medial epicondyle
Explanation
Schottle's point represents the anatomic femoral attachment of the MPFL. It is located in the saddle region distal to the adductor tubercle, proximal to the medial epicondyle, and just posterior to the extension of the posterior femoral cortical line.
Question 1044
Topic: Knee Sports
A 28-year-old professional skier sustains a multi-ligamentous knee injury.
During surgical reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC), an anatomic reconstruction technique is chosen. Which three primary structures must be addressed to restore stability to the PLC?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Fibular collateral ligament, popliteus tendon, and popliteofibular ligament
Explanation
The three major static stabilizers of the posterolateral corner that require anatomic reconstruction are the fibular (lateral) collateral ligament, the popliteus tendon, and the popliteofibular ligament.
Question 1045
Topic: Knee Sports
Improper tunnel placement is a frequent cause of anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction failure. What is the primary kinematic consequence of placing the femoral tunnel too anteriorly?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Loss of knee flexion
Explanation
Placing the femoral tunnel too anteriorly results in excessive tension on the graft as the knee flexes. This abnormal tension leads to restriction in knee flexion and potentially early graft failure.
Question 1046
Topic: Knee Sports
A 45-year-old active male presents with acute posterior knee pain and a palpable 'pop' while deep squatting. MRI reveals a complete medial meniscus posterior root tear. Left untreated, the biomechanical consequences of this injury are most equivalent to which of the following?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Total meniscectomy
Explanation
A complete medial meniscus root tear disrupts the hoop stresses of the meniscus, leading to radial extrusion. Biomechanically, this is equivalent to a total meniscectomy and rapidly accelerates tibiofemoral cartilage degeneration.
Question 1047
Topic: Knee Sports
The medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) provides the primary soft-tissue restraint to lateral patellar translation at which range of knee flexion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 0 to 30 degrees
Explanation
The MPFL is the primary restraint to lateral patellar translation in early flexion (0 to 30 degrees). Beyond 30 degrees, the patella engages the trochlear groove, and bony architecture provides the primary stability.
Question 1048
Topic: Knee Sports
A rugby player is tackled with a blow to the anteromedial tibia. Exam reveals increased varus laxity at 30 degrees of knee flexion but normal varus stability at 0 degrees. The dial test shows increased external rotation at 30 degrees, but it is symmetric to the contralateral side at 90 degrees. Which structures are most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. LCL and Popliteofibular ligament
Explanation
Increased varus laxity at 30 degrees (but normal at 0) and a positive dial test at 30 degrees (but normal at 90) indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. The LCL and popliteofibular ligament are key PLC structures; the intact PCL normalizes the dial test at 90 degrees.
Question 1049
Topic: Knee Sports
A 27-year-old male presents to the ER following a traumatic knee dislocation during a football game. The knee spontaneously reduced prior to arrival. An ankle-brachial index (ABI) is calculated to be 0.8. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. CT angiography of the affected extremity
Explanation
An ABI < 0.9 after a knee dislocation is highly suspicious for a vascular injury, most commonly the popliteal artery. CT angiography or standard arteriography is mandatory to evaluate for vascular compromise before considering surgery or simple observation.
Question 1050
Topic: Knee Sports
A 21-year-old female presents with recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. An axial CT scan measures a tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance of 24 mm. Which procedure should be included in her definitive surgical plan to correct this specific pathomechanics?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tibial tubercle medialization osteotomy
Explanation
A TT-TG distance greater than 20 mm is considered pathologic and predisposes to lateral patellar instability. A tibial tubercle medialization osteotomy is indicated to correct the abnormal extensor mechanism vector, often combined with an MPFL reconstruction.
Question 1051
Topic: Knee Sports
A 55-year-old female sustains an acute posterior root tear of the medial meniscus. Biomechanically, if left untreated, this injury most closely approximates the tibiofemoral contact pressures seen in which of the following scenarios?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A total medial meniscectomy
Explanation
A posterior root tear completely disrupts the circumferential hoop stresses of the meniscus, leading to meniscal extrusion under axial load. Biomechanical studies have demonstrated that this results in increased tibiofemoral contact pressures equivalent to a total medial meniscectomy, rapidly accelerating cartilage degeneration.
Question 1052
Topic: Knee Sports
A 28-year-old male sustains a twisting injury to his knee. On physical examination, the Dial test reveals 20 degrees of increased external rotation of the tibia compared to the contralateral side at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetric rotation is noted at 90 degrees of knee flexion. This finding is most consistent with an isolated injury to the:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterolateral corner
Explanation
Increased external rotation of greater than 10 degrees on the Dial test at 30 degrees of knee flexion, which corrects at 90 degrees, indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. If the asymmetry persists at both 30 and 90 degrees, a combined PCL and PLC injury is diagnosed.
Question 1053
Topic: Knee Sports
A 28-year-old motorcyclist sustains a dashboard injury to his knee. The dial test demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation of the tibia compared to the contralateral side at 90 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetrical external rotation at 30 degrees. Which structure is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) alone
Explanation
A positive dial test (increased external rotation >10 degrees) at 90 degrees of flexion with symmetry at 30 degrees indicates an isolated PCL injury. If the test is positive at both 30 and 90 degrees, it signifies a combined PCL and posterolateral corner injury.
Question 1054
Topic: Knee Sports
During a medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction for recurrent patellar instability, the femoral tunnel must be placed accurately to avoid altering graft kinematics. Which of the following describes the correct radiographic landmark (Schöttle's point) for the femoral origin of the MPFL?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior to the posterior femoral cortical line, proximal to the posterior extension of Blumensaat's line, between the adductor tubercle and medial epicondyle
Explanation
Schöttle's point is the radiographic landmark for the MPFL femoral origin on a true lateral radiograph. It is located 1 mm anterior to the posterior femoral cortex line and 2.5 mm proximal to the posterior extension of Blumensaat's line.
Question 1055
Topic: Knee Sports
A 30-year-old male presents with a multi-ligamentous knee injury following a high-energy trauma. Physical examination reveals an abnormal dial test at both 30 and 90 degrees of knee flexion. Which of the following nerve injuries is most commonly associated with this specific structural injury pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Common peroneal nerve
Explanation
A positive dial test at 30 and 90 degrees indicates injury to both the PCL and the posterolateral corner (PLC). PLC injuries have a well-documented association with common peroneal nerve palsies.
Question 1056
Topic: Knee Sports
A 42-year-old female experiences a sudden "pop" in her posterior knee while squatting. MRI reveals a posterior root tear of the medial meniscus. If left untreated, this injury biomechanically behaves most similarly to which of the following?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Total medial meniscectomy
Explanation
Meniscal root tears result in a loss of hoop stresses, leading to medial meniscal extrusion. Biomechanically, this functions equivalently to a total meniscectomy and accelerates rapid joint degeneration.
Question 1057
Topic: Knee Sports
A 26-year-old male undergoes ACL reconstruction and a concurrent peripheral longitudinal tear of the medial meniscus is repaired. The healing rate of this meniscal repair is enhanced compared to an isolated meniscal repair primarily due to:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Release of bone marrow elements and growth factors during tunnel drilling
Explanation
Concurrent ACL reconstruction enhances meniscal healing due to the release of pluripotent stem cells and growth factors from the marrow during tunnel drilling. This hemarthrosis acts as an optimal biological environment.
Question 1058
Topic: Knee Sports
During a posterolateral corner (PLC) reconstruction of the knee, the surgeon must be acutely aware of the anatomy to avoid iatrogenic injury. Which nerve is at the greatest risk during the surgical approach and lateral dissection for a PLC reconstruction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Common peroneal nerve
Explanation
The common peroneal nerve winds around the fibular neck and is highly vulnerable during the lateral dissection required for PLC reconstruction. Careful identification and neurolysis are mandatory.
Question 1059
Topic: Knee Sports
A 20-year-old gymnast experiences patellar instability. The medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) is deemed incompetent. The femoral footprint of the MPFL (Schöttle's point) is anatomically located:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Between the adductor tubercle and the medial epicondyle
Explanation
Schöttle's point represents the anatomical femoral origin of the MPFL. Radiographically and anatomically, it is located just anterior and distal to the adductor tubercle, and proximal to the medial epicondyle.
Question 1060
Topic: Knee Sports
A 29-year-old male sustains an isolated posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear after a dashboard injury. If nonoperative management is chosen, physical therapy should primarily focus on strengthening which muscle group to restrict posterior tibial translation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Quadriceps
Explanation
The quadriceps act as an antagonist to the PCL by dynamically pulling the tibia anteriorly. Strengthening the quadriceps helps stabilize a PCL-deficient knee.
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