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Question 1001

Topic: Knee Sports

During a posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction, the surgeon aims to anatomically reconstruct the anterolateral (AL) bundle. Which of the following accurately describes the tensioning pattern of the native AL bundle of the PCL?

. It is tight in extension and lax in flexion
. It is tight in flexion and lax in extension
. It remains isometric throughout the entire arc of motion
. It is tight only during internal tibial rotation
. It is tight only in hyperextension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It is tight in flexion and lax in extension


Explanation

The PCL consists of the larger anterolateral (AL) bundle and the smaller posteromedial (PM) bundle. The AL bundle is tight in flexion and lax in extension, whereas the PM bundle is tight in extension and lax in flexion.

Question 1002

Topic: Knee Sports



A 22-year-old female skier sustains a twisting injury to her knee. Radiographs reveal a small avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau (Segond fracture). This radiographic finding is pathognomonic for a concomitant injury to which of the following structures?

. Medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL)
. Posterolateral corner (PLC)
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Iliotibial band

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)


Explanation

A Segond fracture is an avulsion of the anterolateral ligament (ALL) or lateral capsular ligament from the lateral tibial plateau. It is classically associated with an ACL tear, occurring in over 75% to 90% of cases.

Question 1003

Topic: Knee Sports

A 24-year-old athlete sustains a knee injury. On examination, the dial test reveals increased external rotation of the tibia compared to the contralateral side at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetrical external rotation at 90 degrees of knee flexion. This examination finding is most indicative of an isolated injury to which of the following structures?

. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Posterolateral corner
. Combined PCL and posterolateral corner
. Medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral corner


Explanation

A positive dial test at 30 degrees of flexion that normalizes at 90 degrees indicates an isolated injury to the posterolateral corner (PLC). If the test is positive at both 30 and 90 degrees, it suggests a combined PCL and PLC injury.

Question 1004

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old soccer player presents with a recurrent knee effusion and instability 4 months after an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction with bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. What is the most common cause of early failure (within 6 months) following ACL reconstruction?

. Biologic graft rejection
. Deep joint infection
. Acute traumatic reinjury
. Surgical error, most commonly non-anatomic tunnel placement
. Failure of graft incorporation at the bone-tendon interface

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgical error, most commonly non-anatomic tunnel placement


Explanation

The most common cause of early ACL reconstruction failure (less than 6 months postoperatively) is surgical error. Non-anatomic tunnel placement, particularly a femoral tunnel that is placed too far anteriorly, places excessive stress on the graft during flexion.

Question 1005

Topic: Knee Sports

The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is composed of two primary functional bundles. In which position of the knee is the anterolateral (AL) bundle of the PCL at its maximum tension?

. Full extension
. 30 degrees of flexion
. 90 degrees of flexion
. 120 degrees of flexion
. Internal rotation at 0 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 90 degrees of flexion


Explanation

The anterolateral (AL) bundle of the PCL is the larger bundle and is tightest in knee flexion (around 90 degrees). Conversely, the posteromedial (PM) bundle is tightest in full extension.

Question 1006

Topic: Knee Sports

A 28-year-old football player sustains a severe varus and hyperextension injury to his knee, resulting in a posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. Post-injury, he complains of numbness over the dorsum of his foot and an inability to dorsiflex his ankle. Which nerve is most likely injured?

. Tibial nerve
. Common peroneal nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve isolated
. Sural nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Common peroneal nerve


Explanation

The common peroneal nerve is highly susceptible to traction injury during a varus and hyperextension insult that damages the posterolateral corner of the knee. Injury to this nerve results in foot drop and paresthesias over the dorsal aspect of the foot.

Question 1007

Topic: Knee Sports

The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is anatomically composed of two bundles named for their tibial insertion sites. Which bundle is primarily responsible for rotational stability and is tightest in knee extension?

. Anteromedial bundle
. Posterolateral bundle
. Anterolateral bundle
. Posteromedial bundle
. Intermediate bundle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral bundle


Explanation

The posterolateral (PL) bundle of the ACL is tightest in full extension and is the primary restraint to rotatory loads (e.g., pivot shift). The anteromedial (AM) bundle is tightest in flexion and primarily restricts anterior tibial translation.

Question 1008

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old rugby player falls directly onto his flexed right knee. Examination reveals a positive posterior drawer test at 90 degrees of flexion. The dial test demonstrates 20 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion, and 25 degrees of increased external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion compared to the contralateral knee. Which structures are injured?

. PCL alone
. PCL and ACL
. PCL and Posterolateral Corner (PLC)
. PLC alone
. MCL and ACL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. PCL and Posterolateral Corner (PLC)


Explanation

Increased external rotation isolated to 30 degrees of flexion indicates a posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. When the external rotation remains increased at both 30 and 90 degrees of flexion, it indicates a combined PCL and PLC injury.

Question 1009

Topic: Knee Sports

A 26-year-old male presents for a revision ACL reconstruction. Preoperative CT scan demonstrates extensive femoral and tibial tunnel osteolysis, with both tunnels measuring 16 mm in diameter. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Single-stage revision utilizing a 10 mm bone-patellar tendon-bone graft
. Single-stage revision with a synthetic ligament graft
. Two-stage revision involving initial hardware removal and bone grafting of the tunnels
. Non-operative management with a functional unloader brace
. High tibial osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Two-stage revision involving initial hardware removal and bone grafting of the tunnels


Explanation

Tunnel widening greater than 14-15 mm typically necessitates a two-stage revision strategy. The first stage involves hardware removal and bone grafting of the expanded tunnels, followed by the definitive revision ACL reconstruction 4-6 months later once the bone graft has incorporated.

Question 1010

Topic: Knee Sports
A 28-year-old male sustains a traumatic knee dislocation (KD-III). Following closed reduction, examination reveals an inability to dorsiflex the foot and numbness over the dorsum of the foot. Injury to which specific ligamentous complex of the knee is most highly associated with this neurologic deficit?
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL)
. Posterolateral corner (PLC)
. Posteromedial corner (PMC)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral corner (PLC)


Explanation

Common peroneal nerve injury presents with foot drop and dorsal foot numbness. It is highly associated with posterolateral corner (PLC) injuries and knee dislocations because the nerve intimately wraps around the fibular neck directly adjacent to the PLC structures.

Question 1011

Topic: Knee Sports

During an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, the surgeon inadvertently places the femoral tunnel too anteriorly (shallow) in the intercondylar notch. What is the most likely biomechanical consequence of this tunnel malposition?

. The graft will be tight in flexion and loose in extension.
. The graft will be tight in extension and loose in flexion.
. The graft will have increased laxity throughout the entire range of motion.
. The graft will prevent full extension but allow normal flexion.
. The graft will fail secondary to impingement in the intercondylar notch.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The graft will be tight in flexion and loose in extension.


Explanation

Placing the ACL femoral tunnel too anteriorly (shallow) in the notch results in a graft that becomes tight in flexion and loose in extension. This error restricts knee flexion and often leads to gradual stretching and failure of the graft over time.

Question 1012

Topic: Knee Sports

Which of the following correctly describes the tensioning pattern of the native posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) bundles during knee range of motion?

. The anterolateral bundle is tight in extension; the posteromedial bundle is tight in flexion.
. The anterolateral bundle is tight in flexion; the posteromedial bundle is tight in extension.
. Both bundles are maximally tight in deep flexion.
. Both bundles are maximally tight in full extension.
. The anterolateral bundle controls internal rotation; the posteromedial bundle controls external rotation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The anterolateral bundle is tight in flexion; the posteromedial bundle is tight in extension.


Explanation

The PCL consists of two primary bundles. The larger anterolateral (AL) bundle is tight in flexion, providing primary restraint to posterior tibial translation at 90 degrees. The smaller posteromedial (PM) bundle is tight in extension.

Question 1013

Topic: Knee Sports

A 28-year-old male sustains a traumatic knee injury. On physical examination, the dial test is performed. The examiner notes 15 degrees of increased external rotation of the tibia compared to the contralateral leg at 30 degrees of flexion, and 20 degrees of increased external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. This finding is most indicative of:

. An isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
. An isolated posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury
. A combined posterolateral corner (PLC) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury
. A combined anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and PLC injury
. An isolated lateral collateral ligament (LCL) tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A combined posterolateral corner (PLC) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury


Explanation

The dial test evaluates external rotation laxity. Increased external rotation at 30 degrees only suggests an isolated PLC injury. Asymmetry at both 30 and 90 degrees of flexion indicates a combined injury to both the PLC and the PCL.

Question 1014

Topic: Knee Sports

During a physical examination of a patient with a suspected posterolateral corner (PLC) injury, the clinician applies a varus stress to the knee at 30 degrees of flexion. Which specific anatomic structure is the primary restraint to this applied force?

. Popliteus tendon
. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
. Popliteofibular ligament
. Iliotibial band
. Biceps femoris tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)


Explanation

While the PLC functions as a complex, the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) is the primary restraint to varus stress, tested most accurately at 30 degrees of knee flexion. The popliteus and popliteofibular ligaments are primary restraints to external rotation.

Question 1015

Topic: Knee Sports

The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is composed of two distinct bundles. Which of the following best describes the biomechanical function of the posterolateral (PL) bundle?

. It is tightest in full flexion and primarily resists anterior tibial translation.
. It is tightest in extension and primarily resists rotatory loads.
. It is tightest in extension and primarily resists posterior tibial translation.
. It is tightest in flexion and primarily resists varus stress.
. It remains isometric throughout the entire range of motion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It is tightest in extension and primarily resists rotatory loads.


Explanation

The PL bundle of the ACL is tightest in extension and provides the primary restraint to rotatory loads. The anteromedial (AM) bundle is tightest in flexion and primarily resists anterior tibial translation.

Question 1016

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old soccer player sustains a twisting injury to his knee. Physical examination reveals a positive Dial test with 15 degrees of increased external rotation compared to the contralateral knee at 30 degrees of flexion, but no side-to-side difference at 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?

. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Combined PCL and posterolateral corner (PLC)
. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC)
. Isolated anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL) and posterior oblique ligament (POL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC)


Explanation

Increased external rotation of >10 degrees at 30 degrees of flexion with symmetry at 90 degrees indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. Asymmetry at both 30 and 90 degrees indicates a combined PCL and PLC injury.

Question 1017

Topic: Knee Sports

When performing a posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction using an open tibial inlay technique, the surgeon must be mindful of the popliteal artery. During the posterior approach, between which two muscle intervals is the popliteal neurovascular bundle typically protected?

. Between the semimembranosus and semitendinosus
. Between the medial head of the gastrocnemius and the semimembranosus
. Between the lateral head of the gastrocnemius and the biceps femoris
. Between the popliteus and the soleus
. Between the plantaris and the lateral gastrocnemius

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Between the medial head of the gastrocnemius and the semimembranosus


Explanation

The classic open posterior approach to the knee for a tibial inlay PCL reconstruction develops the interval between the medial head of the gastrocnemius and the semimembranosus, protecting the neurovascular bundle laterally.

Question 1018

Topic: Knee Sports

A 19-year-old female basketball player feels a "pop" in her knee while pivoting. Plain radiographs demonstrate an elliptic bone fragment adjacent to the lateral tibial plateau. This finding is highly associated with an injury to which of the following structures?

. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Medial patellofemoral ligament
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Iliotibial band
. Posterolateral corner

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

A Segond fracture is an avulsion of the anterolateral complex (specifically the anterolateral ligament/capsule) from the lateral tibia. It is pathognomonic for an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear.

Question 1019

Topic: Knee Sports

Which of the following structures is considered the primary static stabilizer to varus stress of the knee at 30 degrees of flexion?

. Fibular collateral ligament (LCL)
. Popliteus tendon
. Iliotibial band
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fibular collateral ligament (LCL)


Explanation

The fibular (lateral) collateral ligament is the primary static stabilizer to varus stress in the knee, best isolated and tested clinically at 30 degrees of knee flexion.

Question 1020

Topic: Knee Sports

During an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, the femoral tunnel is inadvertently placed anterior to the anatomic footprint. What is the expected postoperative complication resulting from this technical error?

. Loss of terminal extension
. Loss of flexion
. Anterior knee pain
. Posterior sag sign
. Patella baja

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of flexion


Explanation

Placing the ACL femoral tunnel too anteriorly results in a graft that is excessively tight in flexion. This typically leads to a loss of knee flexion and increased mechanical stress on the graft, predisposing it to failure.