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Question 601

Topic: Knee Sports

A patient presents with knee pain and instability after a hyperextension injury. The Dial test demonstrates 20 degrees of increased external rotation on the injured side compared to the normal side at 30 degrees of flexion, but equal external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. What is the most likely injury?

. Isolated Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL) injury
. Combined PCL and Posterolateral Corner (PLC) injury
. Isolated Posterolateral Corner (PLC) injury
. Isolated Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) injury
. Combined ACL and PCL injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated Posterolateral Corner (PLC) injury


Explanation

The Dial test evaluates external rotation of the tibia at 30° and 90° of flexion. Increased external rotation (>10° compared to the contralateral side) only at 30° indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. If increased external rotation is present at both 30° and 90°, it suggests a combined PCL and PLC injury.

Question 602

Topic: Knee Sports
A 22-year-old female is undergoing an isolated medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction for recurrent patellar instability. To ensure proper graft anisometry, the femoral tunnel must be placed accurately. Based on Schöttle's radiographic point on a strict lateral radiograph, where is the anatomic femoral origin of the MPFL?
. 1 mm anterior to the posterior cortical line, 2.5 mm distal to the posterior origin of the medial femoral condyle, and proximal to the level of the posterior aspect of the Blumensaat line
. 1 mm anterior to the posterior cortical line, 2.5 mm distal to the posterior origin of the medial femoral condyle, and distal to the level of the posterior aspect of the Blumensaat line
. 1 mm posterior to the anterior cortical line, 2.5 mm proximal to the posterior origin of the medial femoral condyle
. 2 mm anterior to the posterior cortical line, proximal to the medial epicondyle
. Distal and anterior to the medial epicondyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1 mm anterior to the posterior cortical line, 2.5 mm distal to the posterior origin of the medial femoral condyle, and proximal to the level of the posterior aspect of the Blumensaat line


Explanation

Schöttle's point, which identifies the anatomic femoral origin of the MPFL on a true lateral radiograph, is located 1 mm anterior to the posterior femoral cortical line, 2.5 mm distal to the posterior origin of the medial femoral condyle, and proximal to the level of the posterior aspect of the Blumensaat line. Proper placement prevents the graft from being too tight in flexion.

Question 603

Topic: Knee Sports

In posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction, the 'killer turn' refers to the acute angle the graft makes at the posterior aspect of the tibia. What is the primary theoretical advantage of the tibial inlay technique over the transtibial technique?

. Avoiding graft attenuation at the killer turn
. Improved visualization of the femoral footprint
. Shorter operative time
. Decreased risk of popliteal artery injury
. Greater graft isometricity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avoiding graft attenuation at the killer turn


Explanation

The tibial inlay technique was developed specifically to avoid the 'killer turn' associated with the transtibial tunnel technique, which can cause graft abrasion, attenuation, and ultimate failure. However, clinical outcome studies have generally demonstrated similar results between the two techniques.

Question 604

Topic: Knee Sports

During an anatomical reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee, a surgeon intends to reconstruct the three major static stabilizing structures. Which of the following combinations represents these structures?

. Lateral collateral ligament, popliteus tendon, and iliotibial band
. Lateral collateral ligament, popliteus tendon, and popliteofibular ligament
. Arcuate ligament, fabellofibular ligament, and popliteus tendon
. Biceps femoris tendon, lateral collateral ligament, and popliteofibular ligament
. Lateral collateral ligament, coronary ligament, and popliteus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral collateral ligament, popliteus tendon, and popliteofibular ligament


Explanation

The three main static stabilizers of the posterolateral corner of the knee are the lateral collateral ligament (LCL), the popliteus tendon (PLT), and the popliteofibular ligament (PFL). Anatomical reconstruction (e.g., LaPrade technique) typically involves reconstructing these three specific structures to restore varus and external rotation stability.

Question 605

Topic: Knee Sports

A 19-year-old female soccer player undergoes revision ACL reconstruction. The surgeon decides to perform a lateral extra-articular tenodesis (LET) using a modified Lemaire technique. Where is the graft typically routed in relation to the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) to provide optimal rotational stability?

. Deep to the LCL
. Supericial to the LCL
. Through a split in the LCL
. Anterior to the LCL and deep to the popliteus
. Posterior to the LCL and superficial to the biceps femoris

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep to the LCL


Explanation

In a modified Lemaire lateral extra-articular tenodesis (LET), a strip of the iliotibial band is harvested, left attached at Gerdy's tubercle, routed deep to the lateral collateral ligament (LCL), and fixed to the anterolateral distal femur. This biomechanically mimics the native anterolateral complex and provides a strong check against internal tibial rotation.

Question 606

Topic: Knee Sports

A 28-year-old active male presents with a symptomatic 4 cm^2 focal full-thickness chondral defect on the weight-bearing surface of the medial femoral condyle with minimal subchondral bone involvement. He previously underwent a microfracture procedure 2 years ago that failed. Which of the following cartilage restoration procedures is most appropriate?

. Repeat microfracture
. Matrix-induced autologous chondrocyte implantation (MACI)
. Osteochondral autograft transfer (OATS)
. Fresh osteochondral allograft transplantation
. Unicompartmental knee arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Matrix-induced autologous chondrocyte implantation (MACI)


Explanation

For larger chondral defects (typically > 2 to 3 cm^2) that have failed primary bone marrow stimulation techniques like microfracture, MACI is highly indicated, provided the subchondral bone is largely intact. OATS is generally reserved for smaller defects due to donor site morbidity.

Question 607

Topic: Knee Sports

A 30-year-old male is evaluated for knee instability. On physical examination, the dial test shows 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion compared to the contralateral side, but symmetric rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. Which structure(s) is/are most likely injured?

. Posterior cruciate ligament only
. Posterolateral corner only
. Both posterolateral corner and posterior cruciate ligament
. Anterior cruciate ligament and posterolateral corner
. Medial collateral ligament and posterior oblique ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral corner only


Explanation

An isolated injury to the posterolateral corner (PLC) presents with increased external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion but not at 90 degrees. If both the PLC and PCL are injured, there is increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.

Question 608

Topic: Knee Sports

During reconstruction of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL), the surgeon aims to recreate its primary biomechanical bundles. Which of the following best describes the tensioning pattern of the normal PCL bundles during knee range of motion?

. Anterolateral bundle is tight in flexion; posteromedial bundle is tight in extension
. Anteromedial bundle is tight in flexion; posterolateral bundle is tight in extension
. Anterolateral bundle is tight in extension; posteromedial bundle is tight in flexion
. Both bundles are equally tight throughout the entire range of motion
. Both bundles are tightest at 45 degrees of flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterolateral bundle is tight in extension; posteromedial bundle is tight in flexion


Explanation

The PCL consists of two main bundles: the larger anterolateral (AL) bundle and the smaller posteromedial (PM) bundle. Biomechanically, the AL bundle is tight in flexion, while the PM bundle is tight in extension.

Question 609

Topic: Knee Sports

A 45-year-old active male with medial compartment osteoarthritis and varus alignment undergoes a medial opening wedge high tibial osteotomy (HTO). If the osteotomy gap is opened disproportionately more anteriorly than posteriorly, what biomechanical effect will this have on the knee?

. Increases posterior tibial slope and increases strain on the ACL
. Decreases posterior tibial slope and increases strain on the PCL
. Increases posterior tibial slope and increases strain on the PCL
. Decreases posterior tibial slope and increases strain on the ACL
. No change in tibial slope but increases patellofemoral contact pressures

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increases posterior tibial slope and increases strain on the PCL


Explanation

Opening a medial HTO gap more anteriorly than posteriorly increases the posterior tibial slope. An increased posterior tibial slope translates the tibia anteriorly, which correspondingly increases the resting strain on the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL).

Question 610

Topic: Knee Sports

A 7-year-old boy presents with a painless clunking sensation in his lateral knee during extension. MRI confirms a complete Wrisberg variant discoid lateral meniscus. What anatomical feature defines the Wrisberg variant of a discoid meniscus?

. Lack of an anterior horn attachment to the tibia
. Absence of the posterior meniscofemoral ligament
. Lack of posterior coronary ligament attachments to the tibia
. Direct attachment to the anterior cruciate ligament
. Presence of a parameniscal cyst extending into the popliteal fossa

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lack of an anterior horn attachment to the tibia


Explanation

The Wrisberg variant of a discoid lateral meniscus lacks the normal posterior meniscotibial (coronary) attachments. Its only posterior attachment is the meniscofemoral ligament of Wrisberg, leading to hypermobility and a snapping sensation during extension.

Question 611

Topic: Knee Sports

The predominant vascular supply to the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is derived from which of the following arteries?

. Inferior medial geniculate artery
. Superior lateral geniculate artery
. Middle geniculate artery
. Descending genicular artery
. Anterior tibial recurrent artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Middle geniculate artery


Explanation

The middle geniculate artery pierces the posterior capsule to supply the synovial sheath of the ACL and PCL. The intrinsic blood supply of the cruciate ligaments is predominantly from this vessel, with minor distal contributions from the inferior genicular arteries.

Question 612

Topic: Knee Sports

A 28-year-old male sustains a multiligament knee injury. Physical examination reveals a +3 posterior drawer test and a positive dial test at both 30 and 90 degrees of flexion. Which combination of injured structures is most likely responsible for these findings?

. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC)
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) and posterolateral corner (PLC)
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) and anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and posterolateral corner (PLC)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) and posterolateral corner (PLC)


Explanation

An isolated PLC injury results in increased external rotation asymmetry (>10 degrees) only at 30 degrees of knee flexion. A combined PCL and PLC injury results in increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees, along with a positive posterior drawer.

Question 613

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old soccer player undergoes arthroscopic repair of a bucket-handle medial meniscus tear. Which of the following factors most significantly increases the biological healing rate of the meniscal repair?

. Concomitant anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction
. Repair with all-inside devices compared to inside-out sutures
. Use of non-absorbable instead of absorbable sutures
. Delaying surgery for >6 weeks post-injury to allow acute inflammation to subside
. Strict non-weight bearing for 8 weeks postoperatively

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Concomitant anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction


Explanation

Concomitant ACL reconstruction enhances meniscal healing due to the release of pluripotent marrow cells and growth factors from tunnel drilling into the joint. Studies consistently show higher healing rates for meniscal repairs performed with concurrent ACL reconstruction compared to isolated repairs.

Question 614

Topic: Knee Sports

A 12-year-old male presents with chronic anterior knee pain. Radiographs and an MRI

demonstrate a stable osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion. What is the most common anatomical location for an OCD lesion of the knee?

. Central aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Trochlear groove
. Inferior pole of the patella

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle


Explanation

The lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle is the classic and most common site for OCD lesions of the knee, accounting for roughly 70% of cases. Nonoperative management is the first-line treatment for stable lesions in patients with open physes.

Question 615

Topic: Knee Sports

A 6-year-old girl presents with a painless clicking and "snapping" sensation in her lateral knee with extension. MRI confirms a discoid lateral meniscus. The Wrisberg variant of a discoid meniscus causes this hypermobility due to the absence of which of the following normal anatomical structures?

. Coronary (meniscotibial) ligaments posteriorly
. Ligament of Wrisberg
. Anterior horn meniscal root attachment
. Ligament of Humphrey
. Popliteofibular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coronary (meniscotibial) ligaments posteriorly


Explanation

The Wrisberg variant of a discoid lateral meniscus is uniquely characterized by the lack of normal posterior meniscotibial (coronary) attachments. It is solely anchored posteriorly by the meniscofemoral ligament of Wrisberg, leading to meniscal subluxation and a snapping knee.

Question 616

Topic: Knee Sports
During medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction, identifying the correct femoral footprint is critical to ensure proper graft isometry. According to Schöttle's point on a true lateral radiograph, where should the femoral attachment be positioned?
. 1 mm anterior to the posterior femoral cortical line and just proximal to the posterior extension of Blumensaat's line
. 5 mm posterior to the posterior femoral cortical line and distal to Blumensaat's line
. 10 mm proximal to the adductor tubercle along the medial epicondylar ridge
. Directly centered on the medial epicondyle
. 5 mm anterior to the posterior femoral cortical line and 10 mm distal to the medial epicondyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1 mm anterior to the posterior femoral cortical line and just proximal to the posterior extension of Blumensaat's line


Explanation

Schöttle's point for the MPFL femoral origin is radiographically defined as 1 mm anterior to the posterior femoral cortical line, 2.5 mm distal to the posterior border of the medial femoral condyle articular surface, and proximal to the posterior extension of Blumensaat's line. Positioning the graft too proximal results in pathologic tightness during knee flexion.

Question 617

Topic: Knee Sports

A 28-year-old male sustains a varus-hyperextension injury to his knee. Examination reveals a positive dial test at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees compared to the contralateral knee. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?

. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Posterolateral corner
. Posteromedial corner
. Medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral corner


Explanation

A positive dial test (increased external rotation >10 degrees) at 30 degrees of flexion with a normal test at 90 degrees isolates an injury to the posterolateral corner (PLC). Combined PLC and PCL injuries show increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.

Question 618

Topic: Knee Sports

A 24-year-old male undergoes arthroscopy for an acute ACL rupture. The surgeon evaluates the posterior horn of the medial meniscus through the intercondylar notch and identifies a ramp lesion. Biomechanically, untreated ramp lesions in the setting of ACL reconstruction primarily increase which of the following?

. Varus laxity
. Valgus laxity
. Posterior tibial translation
. Anterior tibial translation
. Internal tibial rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Varus laxity


Explanation

Untreated meniscal ramp lesions significantly increase anterior tibial translation and external rotation forces on an ACL graft. Repair of the ramp lesion restores native knee kinematics and protects the ACL reconstruction.

Question 619

Topic: Knee Sports

A 30-year-old male sustains a posterior dashboard injury to his knee. Physical examination reveals a 12-mm posterior step-off of the tibia relative to the femoral condyles at 90 degrees of flexion. The dial test shows 20 degrees of increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. Which structures are injured?

. Isolated PCL
. Isolated PLC
. PCL and PLC
. PCL and MCL
. ACL and PCL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated PCL


Explanation

Increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees of flexion on the dial test indicates a combined injury to the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) and posterolateral corner (PLC). An isolated PLC injury increases ER at 30 degrees only.

Question 620

Topic: Knee Sports

A 21-year-old female presents with recurrent lateral patellar instability. MRI demonstrates a normal trochlear groove, but her tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance is measured at 24 mm. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate?

. Isolated Medial Patellofemoral Ligament (MPFL) reconstruction
. Lateral retinacular release
. Tibial tubercle medialization osteotomy with MPFL reconstruction
. Trochleoplasty
. Distal femoral varus osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated Medial Patellofemoral Ligament (MPFL) reconstruction


Explanation

A TT-TG distance >20 mm is considered pathologic and predisposes to patellar instability. A tibial tubercle osteotomy (medialization) is indicated to correct this anatomic abnormality, typically combined with MPFL reconstruction.