This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Knee Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 601
Topic: Knee Sports
A patient presents with knee pain and instability after a hyperextension injury. The Dial test demonstrates 20 degrees of increased external rotation on the injured side compared to the normal side at 30 degrees of flexion, but equal external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. What is the most likely injury?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Isolated Posterolateral Corner (PLC) injury
Explanation
The Dial test evaluates external rotation of the tibia at 30° and 90° of flexion. Increased external rotation (>10° compared to the contralateral side) only at 30° indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. If increased external rotation is present at both 30° and 90°, it suggests a combined PCL and PLC injury.
Question 602
Topic: Knee Sports
A 22-year-old female is undergoing an isolated medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction for recurrent patellar instability. To ensure proper graft anisometry, the femoral tunnel must be placed accurately. Based on Schöttle's radiographic point on a strict lateral radiograph, where is the anatomic femoral origin of the MPFL?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 1 mm anterior to the posterior cortical line, 2.5 mm distal to the posterior origin of the medial femoral condyle, and proximal to the level of the posterior aspect of the Blumensaat line
Explanation
Schöttle's point, which identifies the anatomic femoral origin of the MPFL on a true lateral radiograph, is located 1 mm anterior to the posterior femoral cortical line, 2.5 mm distal to the posterior origin of the medial femoral condyle, and proximal to the level of the posterior aspect of the Blumensaat line. Proper placement prevents the graft from being too tight in flexion.
Question 603
Topic: Knee Sports
In posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction, the 'killer turn' refers to the acute angle the graft makes at the posterior aspect of the tibia. What is the primary theoretical advantage of the tibial inlay technique over the transtibial technique?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Avoiding graft attenuation at the killer turn
Explanation
The tibial inlay technique was developed specifically to avoid the 'killer turn' associated with the transtibial tunnel technique, which can cause graft abrasion, attenuation, and ultimate failure. However, clinical outcome studies have generally demonstrated similar results between the two techniques.
Question 604
Topic: Knee Sports
During an anatomical reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee, a surgeon intends to reconstruct the three major static stabilizing structures. Which of the following combinations represents these structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral collateral ligament, popliteus tendon, and popliteofibular ligament
Explanation
The three main static stabilizers of the posterolateral corner of the knee are the lateral collateral ligament (LCL), the popliteus tendon (PLT), and the popliteofibular ligament (PFL). Anatomical reconstruction (e.g., LaPrade technique) typically involves reconstructing these three specific structures to restore varus and external rotation stability.
Question 605
Topic: Knee Sports
A 19-year-old female soccer player undergoes revision ACL reconstruction. The surgeon decides to perform a lateral extra-articular tenodesis (LET) using a modified Lemaire technique. Where is the graft typically routed in relation to the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) to provide optimal rotational stability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Deep to the LCL
Explanation
In a modified Lemaire lateral extra-articular tenodesis (LET), a strip of the iliotibial band is harvested, left attached at Gerdy's tubercle, routed deep to the lateral collateral ligament (LCL), and fixed to the anterolateral distal femur. This biomechanically mimics the native anterolateral complex and provides a strong check against internal tibial rotation.
Question 606
Topic: Knee Sports
A 28-year-old active male presents with a symptomatic 4 cm^2 focal full-thickness chondral defect on the weight-bearing surface of the medial femoral condyle with minimal subchondral bone involvement. He previously underwent a microfracture procedure 2 years ago that failed. Which of the following cartilage restoration procedures is most appropriate?
For larger chondral defects (typically > 2 to 3 cm^2) that have failed primary bone marrow stimulation techniques like microfracture, MACI is highly indicated, provided the subchondral bone is largely intact. OATS is generally reserved for smaller defects due to donor site morbidity.
Question 607
Topic: Knee Sports
A 30-year-old male is evaluated for knee instability. On physical examination, the dial test shows 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion compared to the contralateral side, but symmetric rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. Which structure(s) is/are most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterolateral corner only
Explanation
An isolated injury to the posterolateral corner (PLC) presents with increased external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion but not at 90 degrees. If both the PLC and PCL are injured, there is increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.
Question 608
Topic: Knee Sports
During reconstruction of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL), the surgeon aims to recreate its primary biomechanical bundles. Which of the following best describes the tensioning pattern of the normal PCL bundles during knee range of motion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterolateral bundle is tight in extension; posteromedial bundle is tight in flexion
Explanation
The PCL consists of two main bundles: the larger anterolateral (AL) bundle and the smaller posteromedial (PM) bundle. Biomechanically, the AL bundle is tight in flexion, while the PM bundle is tight in extension.
Question 609
Topic: Knee Sports
A 45-year-old active male with medial compartment osteoarthritis and varus alignment undergoes a medial opening wedge high tibial osteotomy (HTO). If the osteotomy gap is opened disproportionately more anteriorly than posteriorly, what biomechanical effect will this have on the knee?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increases posterior tibial slope and increases strain on the PCL
Explanation
Opening a medial HTO gap more anteriorly than posteriorly increases the posterior tibial slope. An increased posterior tibial slope translates the tibia anteriorly, which correspondingly increases the resting strain on the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL).
Question 610
Topic: Knee Sports
A 7-year-old boy presents with a painless clunking sensation in his lateral knee during extension. MRI confirms a complete Wrisberg variant discoid lateral meniscus. What anatomical feature defines the Wrisberg variant of a discoid meniscus?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lack of an anterior horn attachment to the tibia
Explanation
The Wrisberg variant of a discoid lateral meniscus lacks the normal posterior meniscotibial (coronary) attachments. Its only posterior attachment is the meniscofemoral ligament of Wrisberg, leading to hypermobility and a snapping sensation during extension.
Question 611
Topic: Knee Sports
The predominant vascular supply to the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is derived from which of the following arteries?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Middle geniculate artery
Explanation
The middle geniculate artery pierces the posterior capsule to supply the synovial sheath of the ACL and PCL. The intrinsic blood supply of the cruciate ligaments is predominantly from this vessel, with minor distal contributions from the inferior genicular arteries.
Question 612
Topic: Knee Sports
A 28-year-old male sustains a multiligament knee injury. Physical examination reveals a +3 posterior drawer test and a positive dial test at both 30 and 90 degrees of flexion. Which combination of injured structures is most likely responsible for these findings?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) and posterolateral corner (PLC)
Explanation
An isolated PLC injury results in increased external rotation asymmetry (>10 degrees) only at 30 degrees of knee flexion. A combined PCL and PLC injury results in increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees, along with a positive posterior drawer.
Question 613
Topic: Knee Sports
A 22-year-old soccer player undergoes arthroscopic repair of a bucket-handle medial meniscus tear. Which of the following factors most significantly increases the biological healing rate of the meniscal repair?
Concomitant ACL reconstruction enhances meniscal healing due to the release of pluripotent marrow cells and growth factors from tunnel drilling into the joint. Studies consistently show higher healing rates for meniscal repairs performed with concurrent ACL reconstruction compared to isolated repairs.
Question 614
Topic: Knee Sports
A 12-year-old male presents with chronic anterior knee pain. Radiographs and an MRI
demonstrate a stable osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion. What is the most common anatomical location for an OCD lesion of the knee?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
Explanation
The lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle is the classic and most common site for OCD lesions of the knee, accounting for roughly 70% of cases. Nonoperative management is the first-line treatment for stable lesions in patients with open physes.
Question 615
Topic: Knee Sports
A 6-year-old girl presents with a painless clicking and "snapping" sensation in her lateral knee with extension. MRI confirms a discoid lateral meniscus. The Wrisberg variant of a discoid meniscus causes this hypermobility due to the absence of which of the following normal anatomical structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Coronary (meniscotibial) ligaments posteriorly
Explanation
The Wrisberg variant of a discoid lateral meniscus is uniquely characterized by the lack of normal posterior meniscotibial (coronary) attachments. It is solely anchored posteriorly by the meniscofemoral ligament of Wrisberg, leading to meniscal subluxation and a snapping knee.
Question 616
Topic: Knee Sports
During medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction, identifying the correct femoral footprint is critical to ensure proper graft isometry. According to Schöttle's point on a true lateral radiograph, where should the femoral attachment be positioned?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 1 mm anterior to the posterior femoral cortical line and just proximal to the posterior extension of Blumensaat's line
Explanation
Schöttle's point for the MPFL femoral origin is radiographically defined as 1 mm anterior to the posterior femoral cortical line, 2.5 mm distal to the posterior border of the medial femoral condyle articular surface, and proximal to the posterior extension of Blumensaat's line. Positioning the graft too proximal results in pathologic tightness during knee flexion.
Question 617
Topic: Knee Sports
A 28-year-old male sustains a varus-hyperextension injury to his knee. Examination reveals a positive dial test at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees compared to the contralateral knee. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterolateral corner
Explanation
A positive dial test (increased external rotation >10 degrees) at 30 degrees of flexion with a normal test at 90 degrees isolates an injury to the posterolateral corner (PLC). Combined PLC and PCL injuries show increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.
Question 618
Topic: Knee Sports
A 24-year-old male undergoes arthroscopy for an acute ACL rupture. The surgeon evaluates the posterior horn of the medial meniscus through the intercondylar notch and identifies a ramp lesion. Biomechanically, untreated ramp lesions in the setting of ACL reconstruction primarily increase which of the following?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Varus laxity
Explanation
Untreated meniscal ramp lesions significantly increase anterior tibial translation and external rotation forces on an ACL graft. Repair of the ramp lesion restores native knee kinematics and protects the ACL reconstruction.
Question 619
Topic: Knee Sports
A 30-year-old male sustains a posterior dashboard injury to his knee. Physical examination reveals a 12-mm posterior step-off of the tibia relative to the femoral condyles at 90 degrees of flexion. The dial test shows 20 degrees of increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. Which structures are injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Isolated PCL
Explanation
Increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees of flexion on the dial test indicates a combined injury to the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) and posterolateral corner (PLC). An isolated PLC injury increases ER at 30 degrees only.
Question 620
Topic: Knee Sports
A 21-year-old female presents with recurrent lateral patellar instability. MRI demonstrates a normal trochlear groove, but her tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance is measured at 24 mm. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate?
A TT-TG distance >20 mm is considered pathologic and predisposes to patellar instability. A tibial tubercle osteotomy (medialization) is indicated to correct this anatomic abnormality, typically combined with MPFL reconstruction.
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