This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Knee Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 501
Topic: Knee Sports
In the anterior cruciate ligament-deficient knee, what structure provides an important secondary restraint to anterior tibial translation? Review Topic
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior horn of the medial meniscus
Explanation
Cadaveric studies have demonstrated the important role of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus in stabilizing the anterior cruciate ligament-deficient knee with significantly greater resultant force in the medial meniscus when subjected to anterior tibial loads. The posterior horn of the medial meniscus is thought to limit anterior tibial translation by acting as a buttress by wedging against the posterior aspect of the medial femoral condyle. The other soft tissues mentioned do not play any significant role in prevention of anterior tibial translation in the anterior cruciate ligament-deficient knee.
Question 502
Topic: Knee Sports
Figure 16 shows an axial MRI scan through the knee joint. What structure is identified by the arrow?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior cruciate ligament
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The anterior cruciate ligament can be visualized on an axial MRI scan as a low-signal structure lying in the lateral aspect of the intercondylar notch. Visualization in multiple planes increases the accuracy of MRI to view the anterior cruciate ligament. The posterior cruciate ligament and ligament of Wrisberg are located on the medial wall of the notch. The ligamentum mucosum is anterior to the notch, and the popliteus tendon is posterior to the lateral femoral condyle. REFERENCES: Resnick D, Kang HS (eds): Internal Derangements of Joints: Emphasis on MR Imaging. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1997, pp 675-699. Fitzgerald SW, Remer EM, Friedman H, Rogers LF, Hendrix RW, Schafer MF: MR evaluation of the anterior cruciate ligament: Value of supplementing sagittal images with coronal and axial images. Am J Roentgenol 1993;160:1233-1237.
Question 503
Topic: Knee Sports
A 19-year-old rugby player has severe knee pain after being injured in a game 2 weeks ago. Examination reveals a knee effusion, limited motion, and increased 3+ Lachman’s test and anterior drawer. There is also increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion when the patient is placed in the prone position. Based on these findings, which of the following actions would most likely increase the risk of anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction failure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Persistent posterolateral corner injury
Explanation
The patient has a combined ACL and posterolateral corner injury. Failure to diagnose and treat an injury of the posterolateral corner in a patient who has a tear of the anterior or posterior cruciate ligament can result in failure of the reconstructed cruciate ligament. The tibial external rotation test is best performed with the patient in the prone position. A 10-degree side-to-side difference of external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion indicates injury to the posterolateral corner.
Question 504
Topic: Knee Sports
A football player injures his knee when he is tackled and falls awkwardly. He does not note any discreet “pop,” but pain prevents him from returning to the game. An effusion is noted the following day and an MRI scan is ordered. Selected images are shown in Figures 1 through 3. Based on these images, physical examination findings likely include
Correct Answer & Explanation
. positive Lachman test, normal posterior drawer, positive pivot shift.
Explanation
The images provided reveal a posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) disruption with an intact anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). Common diagnostic findings for a PCL tear include a positive posterior drawer test, positive reverse pivot shift, positive quadriceps active test, and positive posterior sag. A positive Lachman test, which would indicate a torn ACL, would not be expected to be positive. A false-positive result for a Lachman test can arise with a torn PCL because of the overall increased anterior-posterior translation;this must be avoided by careful attention to initial resting position and station of the knee.
Question 505
Topic: Knee Sports
A 48-year-old man has recurrent right knee pain. Figure 52a shows the sagittal proton density T2-weighted MRI scan, and Figure 52b shows the sagittal T2-weighted MRI scan at the same level. The arrow is pointing to a
Correct Answer & Explanation
. torn and displaced posterior horn of the medial meniscus.
Explanation
DISCUSSION: Meniscal tears have many configurations and locations. The normal medial meniscus has a bow-tie configuration on the two most medial consecutive sagittal views. Toward the center of the joint the anterior and posterior horns have a triangular shape. These images show an abnormal intra-articular low-signal structure located anterior to the intact posterior cruciate ligament. This most likely represents a torn and displaced posterior horn of the medial meniscus, sometimes called “double PCL sign.” A popliteal cyst and ligaments of Wrisberg and Humphry are not visible on these figures. REFERENCES: Helms CA: MR image of the knee, in Fundamentals of Skeletal Radiology, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 1995, pp 172-191. Mink JH, Deutsch AL: The knee, in MRI of the Musculoskeletal System, ed 1. New York, NY, Raven Press, 1990, pp 251-387.
Question 506
Topic: Knee Sports
Figure 51 shows an arthroscopic view of the patellofemoral joint from an inferolateral portal. The arrow points to which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Plica
Explanation
Synovial folds or plicae are the result of incomplete or partial resorption of the synovial membranes during fetal development of the knee. The arthroscopic view shows a medial patellar plica, which has been noted in 5% to 55% of all individuals but becomes symptomatic in only a small number of patients. Symptoms may include crepitus, pain, snapping, and swelling and often respond to nonsurgical management.
Question 507
Topic: Knee Sports
A 12.5-year-old boy reports intermittent knee pain and limping that interferes with his ability to participate in sports. He actively participates in football, basketball, and baseball. He denies any history of injury. Examination shows full range of motion without effusion. Radiographs reveal an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion on the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle. MRI scans are shown in Figures 14a and 14b. Initial treatment should consist of:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Activity modification
Explanation
This skeletally immature patient has a small OCD lesion that appears stable, and he has not undergone any treatment. Therefore, a trial of activity modification and limited weight bearing until pain resolves is the best initial choice. Cessation of sport activities for 4 to 6 months may allow healing of the lesion. Surgical treatment of juvenile OCD lesions is reserved for unstable lesions, patients who have not shown radiographic evidence of healing and are still symptomatic after 6 months of nonsurgical management, or patients who are approaching skeletal maturity.
Question 508
Topic: Knee Sports
A 20-year-old basketball player sustains a knee injury during a game and is seen in the orthopaedic clinic 3 days after injury. Examination reveals a positive Lachman, pivot shift, joint line tenderness, and moderate effusion. Which of the following tissue injuries is most likely causing the jointline tenderness? Review Topic
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral meniscus tear
Explanation
The physical examination findings are consistent with an acute anterior cruciate ligament tear. In the acute setting, a lateral meniscus tear is a more common secondary injury than a medial meniscus tear. In one study of acute anterior cruciate ligament tears in alpine skiers, the incidence of lateral meniscus tears was over four times that of medial meniscus tears. Medial meniscus tears are more common in the chronic setting, most likely secondary to its role as a secondary restraint.
Question 509
Topic: Knee Sports
Failure of posterolateral corner repair or reconstruction of the knee may be associated with which of the following? Review Topic
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Varus malalignment
Explanation
Failure to reconstruct a torn anterior cruciate ligament or posterior cruciate ligament at the time of posterolateral corner (PLC) repair or reconstruction dramatically increases the likelihood of PLC failure. Uncorrected varus malalignment places extensive tension on a PLC reconstruction and is a well recognized cause of failure. Valgus malalignment and medial collateral ligament reconstruction are not recognized means of failure.
Question 510
Topic: Knee Sports
A player on a professional football team sustains a knee injury and is diagnosed with an anterior cruciate ligament rupture. When employed as the team physician, your ethical obligation is to inform
Correct Answer & Explanation
. the player but not the team.
Explanation
When you are employed as a team physician, you are obligated to inform the players and the team organization of all athletically relevant medical issues. This differs significantly from the normal rule of patient confidentiality. If the player came to see you and you were not the team physician, you may not inform the team unless the player so desires. As the team physician, you are not obligated to inform the media.
Question 511
Topic: Knee Sports
During reconstruction of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) for recurrent patellar instability, accurate identification of the anatomic femoral attachment (Schöttle's point) is critical to prevent graft anisometry. On a strictly lateral radiograph of the knee, where is Schöttle's point accurately located?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 1 mm anterior to the posterior cortex extension line, 2.5 mm distal to the posterior origin of the medial femoral condyle, and proximal to Blumensaat's line
Explanation
According to Schöttle et al., the radiographic landmark for the femoral footprint of the MPFL on a strict lateral radiograph is 1 mm anterior to the posterior cortex extension line, 2.5 mm distal to the posterior origin of the medial femoral condyle, and distinctly proximal to the posterior extension of Blumensaat's line. Placing the graft here ensures optimal isometry during knee flexion and extension.
Question 512
Topic: Knee Sports
A 45-year-old female presents with acute medial knee pain after a squatting maneuver. MRI reveals a complete radial tear at the posterior root of the medial meniscus, with 4 mm of medial meniscal extrusion. Biomechanically, this specific injury pattern is most equivalent to which of the following conditions?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Total medial meniscectomy
Explanation
The meniscal roots securely anchor the meniscus to the tibial plateau, allowing the meniscus to convert axial loads into circumferential 'hoop stresses'. A complete tear of the posterior root disrupts these hoop stresses entirely, leading to meniscal extrusion. Biomechanical studies have demonstrated that a root tear results in contact pressures and kinematics that are statistically equivalent to a total meniscectomy.
Question 513
Topic: Knee Sports
During an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, the surgeon inadvertently places the femoral tunnel too anterior (shallow) in the intercondylar notch. What is the expected kinematic consequence of this technical error?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Excessive graft tension in extension and laxity in flexion
Explanation
An anteriorly (shallow) placed femoral tunnel in ACL reconstruction captures a rotational axis that causes the graft to become excessively tight in flexion and loose in extension, potentially limiting terminal flexion.
Question 514
Topic: Knee Sports
During medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction, the surgeon places the femoral tunnel proximal and anterior to the true anatomic insertion (Schottle point). What is the primary kinematic abnormality caused by this error?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Excessive graft tightness in extension
Explanation
A femoral tunnel placed too proximal and anterior in MPFL reconstruction will result in the graft increasing in tension as the knee flexes. This excessive tightness in flexion restricts motion and increases medial patellofemoral contact pressures.
Question 515
Topic: Knee Sports
During medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction for recurrent patellar instability, the surgeon uses fluoroscopy to identify Schöttle's point for the femoral tunnel. Which of the following radiographic landmarks correctly defines this location on a strict lateral radiograph?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 1 mm anterior to the posterior cortex extension line, 2.5 mm proximal to the posterior articular border, and proximal to Blumensaat's line
Explanation
Schöttle's point identifies the anatomic femoral origin of the MPFL. On a strict lateral view, it is located 1 mm anterior to a line extending the posterior femoral cortex, 2.5 mm proximal to the posterior articular border, and proximal to Blumensaat's line.
Question 516
Topic: Knee Sports
During reconstruction of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL), anatomically recreating the anterolateral (AL) bundle is crucial for restoring native kinematics. What is the primary biomechanical function of the AL bundle of the PCL?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Resist posterior tibial translation in full extension
Explanation
The PCL consists of two main bundles: the anterolateral (AL) and posteromedial (PM). The AL bundle is tightest in flexion and is the primary restraint to posterior tibial translation at 90 degrees of knee flexion, making it the primary target in single-bundle reconstructions.
Question 517
Topic: Knee Sports
Reconstruction of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) requires highly accurate femoral tunnel placement to ensure isometry. According to Schöttle's method, what is the correct radiographic location of the femoral footprint of the MPFL on a true lateral radiograph?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior to the posterior femoral cortex line, proximal to the posterior condyle margin, and between Blumensaat's line and the posterior cortex
Explanation
Schöttle's point identifies the anatomic femoral origin of the MPFL. It is located just anterior to a line extending the posterior femoral cortex, proximal to the posterior articular margin, and just distal to the intersection of Blumensaat's line with the posterior cortex.
Question 518
Topic: Knee Sports
A 9-year-old male (Tanner Stage I) sustains a complete midsubstance anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) rupture. He has significant growth remaining. Which surgical technique is most appropriate to minimize the risk of iatrogenic limb length discrepancy and angular deformity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Transphyseal hamstring reconstruction
Explanation
In prepubescent patients with substantial growth remaining (Tanner Stage I or II), physeal-sparing techniques such as an all-epiphyseal or extra-articular reconstruction are indicated. Transphyseal techniques crossing the open physes risk premature arrest and subsequent angular or leg-length deformities.
Question 519
Topic: Knee Sports
A trauma patient presents with a suspected posterolateral corner (PLC) knee injury. The dial test demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the uninjured side, but symmetric rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. This finding is diagnostic of an isolated injury to which structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior cruciate ligament
Explanation
An increase in external rotation of more than 10 degrees at 30 degrees of flexion, but not at 90 degrees, indicates an isolated injury to the posterolateral corner (PLC). If increased external rotation is present at both 30 and 90 degrees, a combined PLC and PCL injury is diagnosed.
Question 520
Topic: Knee Sports
During reconstruction of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL), identifying the anatomic femoral footprint (Schottle's point) is critical for graft isometry. Radiographically on a true lateral view, where is this point located?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 1 mm anterior to the posterior femoral cortical line and just proximal to the extension of Blumensaat's line
Explanation
Schottle's point defines the anatomic femoral origin of the MPFL. On a strict lateral radiograph, it is situated 1 mm anterior to the posterior cortex line, just proximal to the posterior extension of Blumensaat's line, and distal to the posterior origin of the medial femoral condyle.
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