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Question 21

Topic: Knee Sports

The most common location for an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion in the adolescent knee is the:

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Central weight-bearing dome of the medial femoral condyle
. Anterior aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Trochlear groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle


Explanation

The lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle is the most frequent site of OCD lesions in the knee. This classic location accounts for approximately 70-80% of all knee OCD cases.

Question 22

Topic: Knee Sports

When comparing the biomechanical properties of a 10-mm bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) graft to the native anterior cruciate ligament (ACL), which of the following statements is true?

. The BPTB graft has lower ultimate failure load.
. The BPTB graft is less stiff.
. The BPTB graft has higher ultimate failure load and greater stiffness.
. The native ACL has higher stiffness but lower ultimate failure load.
. There is no biomechanical difference between the two.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The BPTB graft has higher ultimate failure load and greater stiffness.


Explanation

A 10-mm BPTB graft has approximately 168 percent of the strength (ultimate failure load) and is significantly stiffer than the native ACL. However, clinical success ultimately depends on biological incorporation and precise tunnel placement.

Question 23

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old football player sustains a direct blow to the anteromedial tibia. Physical examination demonstrates a positive Dial test with 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. At 90 degrees of flexion, the external rotation is symmetric bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury
. Combined PCL and posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL) injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury


Explanation

An isolated PLC injury presents with increased external rotation on the Dial test at 30 degrees but not at 90 degrees of flexion. If increased external rotation is present at both 30 and 90 degrees, it indicates a combined PCL and PLC injury.

Question 24

Topic: Knee Sports

A patient undergoes a 'dial test' to evaluate a knee injury. The test reveals more than 10 degrees of increased external tibial rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the uninjured side. However, the external rotation is symmetric at 90 degrees of knee flexion. What injury pattern does this indicate?

. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury
. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
. Combined PCL and PLC injury
. Isolated anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury
. Combined ACL and medial collateral ligament (MCL) injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury


Explanation

An increase in external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion that normalizes at 90 degrees indicates an isolated injury to the posterolateral corner. If the asymmetry persisted at both 30 and 90 degrees, it would suggest a combined PLC and PCL injury.

Question 25

Topic: Knee Sports

A 14-year-old boy presents with knee pain and intermittent mechanical catching. Imaging confirms an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion. What is the most common anatomical location for this lesion in the knee?

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Central trochlear groove
. Inferior pole of the patella
. Posterior lateral tibial plateau

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle


Explanation

The classic and most common location for an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion of the knee is the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle. This accounts for approximately 70-80% of knee OCD lesions.

Question 26

Topic: Knee Sports

A patient lies supine with the knee flexed to 90 degrees and the foot flat on the table. The examiner asks the patient to contract their quadriceps while the examiner provides resistance against the foot. The examiner observes an anterior translation of the proximal tibia. What does this 'quadriceps active test' finding indicate?

. Anterior cruciate ligament tear
. Posterior cruciate ligament tear
. Medial collateral ligament tear
. Posterolateral corner injury
. Complete patellar tendon rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament tear


Explanation

The quadriceps active test assesses for posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) insufficiency. In a PCL-deficient knee, the tibia rests in a posteriorly subluxated position at 90 degrees. Contraction of the quadriceps vector pulls the tibia anteriorly to its normal reduced position.

Question 27

Topic: Knee Sports

Accelerated rehabilitation after anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction has resulted in:

. Increased graft failure rates
. Decreased time to full activity
. Increased rates of stiffness
. Prolonged time to full activity
. Increased meniscal tears

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased time to full activity


Explanation

Accelerated rehabilitation focusing on gaining and maintaining full extension, early unrestricted range of motion, and progression of rehabilitation based on achieving functional goals rather than a strict timeline has resulted in earlier return to sporting activities without compromising the ultimate result.

Question 28

Topic: Knee Sports

Which ligament prevents excessive anterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur?

. Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)
. Medial Collateral Ligament (MCL)
. Lateral Collateral Ligament (LCL)
. Patellar Ligament
. Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL)


Explanation

The Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) is the primary restraint to anterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur, as well as to rotational forces.

Question 29

Topic: Knee Sports

Which of the following is NOT a component of the "Terrible Triad" knee injury?

. ACL tear
. MCL tear
. Medial meniscus tear
. PCL tear
. Lateral meniscus tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. PCL tear


Explanation

The "Terrible Triad" (or O'Donoghue's Triad) involves simultaneous injury to the ACL, MCL, andmedialmeniscus. A PCL tear or lateral meniscus tear is not part of the classic triad.

Question 30

Topic: Knee Sports

During an anatomical medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction, the femoral attachment (Schottles point) is identified radiographically. It is properly located:

. Anterior to the posterior femoral cortical line and proximal to Blumensaats line
. Posterior to the posterior femoral cortical line and distal to Blumensaats line
. Directly on the adductor tubercle
. Distal to the medial epicondyle
. Distal to the superficial MCL origin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior to the posterior femoral cortical line and proximal to Blumensaats line


Explanation

Schottles point is defined radiographically as 1 mm anterior to the posterior femoral cortical line, 2.5 mm distal to the posterior origin of the medial femoral condyle, and proximal to the posterior extension of Blumensaats line.

Question 31

Topic: Knee Sports

A complete posterior root tear of the medial meniscus severely disrupts the hoop stresses of the meniscus. Biomechanically, the resulting knee joint contact pressures are most similar to which of the following conditions?

. An intact knee with an isolated grade 2 MCL sprain
. A knee that has undergone a total medial meniscectomy
. An isolated anterior cruciate ligament tear
. An isolated posterior cruciate ligament tear
. A bucket-handle meniscal tear without displacement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A knee that has undergone a total medial meniscectomy


Explanation

A complete medial meniscus posterior root tear renders the meniscus functionally incompetent, leading to altered kinematics and contact pressures that are essentially equivalent to a total medial meniscectomy.

Question 32

Topic: Knee Sports

When evaluating a pediatric patient with poorly localized knee pain, an MRI is obtained. The most common anatomical location for osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the knee is the:

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Central trochlear groove
. Patellar articular surface
. Weight-bearing surface of the medial tibial plateau

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle


Explanation

The classic and most frequent location for osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesions in the knee is the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle.

Question 33

Topic: Knee Sports

According to established treatment algorithms for osteochondral lesions of the talus (OCL), which of the following lesions is best suited for arthroscopic microfracture or bone marrow stimulation as the primary surgical intervention?

. A 2.0 cm squared cystic lesion on the medial talar dome
. A 1.2 cm squared symptomatic lesion that failed 3 months of conservative management
. A 3.0 cm squared uncontained lateral talar dome lesion
. An asymptomatic 1.0 cm squared lesion found incidentally on MRI
. A lesion with a displaced, loose bony fragment measuring 2.5 cm squared

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A 1.2 cm squared symptomatic lesion that failed 3 months of conservative management


Explanation

Arthroscopic microfracture is generally recommended as the primary surgical treatment for symptomatic, contained osteochondral lesions of the talus that are less than 1.5 cm squared in total area.

Question 34

Topic: Knee Sports

A patient is evaluated for a suspected posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury following a dashboard injury. An isolated, complete tear of the PCL without posterolateral corner (PLC) involvement will classically demonstrate which dial test result?

. Increased external rotation at 30 degrees only
. Increased external rotation at 90 degrees only
. Increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees
. Decreased external rotation at 30 degrees
. Decreased external rotation at 90 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased external rotation at 90 degrees only


Explanation

An isolated PCL injury typically presents with increased external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion but normal rotation at 30 degrees. Combined PCL and PLC injuries demonstrate increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.

Question 35

Topic: Knee Sports

In anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) anatomy, the anteromedial (AM) bundle and posterolateral (PL) bundle exhibit which of the following biomechanical behaviors?

. AM bundle tightens in extension, PL bundle tightens in flexion
. AM bundle tightens in flexion, PL bundle tightens in extension
. Both tighten equally in flexion
. Both tighten equally in extension
. AM bundle is an isometric stabilizer throughout the arc of motion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. AM bundle tightens in flexion, PL bundle tightens in extension


Explanation

The AM bundle is tightest in flexion, providing primary restraint to anterior translation at 90 degrees. The PL bundle is tightest in extension and provides primary rotational stability.

Question 36

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old football player sustains a non-contact knee injury. MRI reveals an isolated complete tear of the posterolateral corner (PLC). Which of the following physical exam findings is most expected?

. Increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees of knee flexion
. Increased external rotation at 30 degrees but normal at 90 degrees
. Increased internal rotation at 30 degrees
. Increased external rotation at 90 degrees but normal at 30 degrees
. Positive posterior sag sign at 90 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased external rotation at 30 degrees but normal at 90 degrees


Explanation

An isolated PLC injury results in increased external rotation (greater than 10 degrees compared to the contralateral side) at 30 degrees of flexion. If increased external rotation is present at both 30 and 90 degrees, it indicates a combined PCL and PLC injury.

Question 37

Topic: Knee Sports

Placing the femoral attachment of a medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) graft too proximal and anterior to its anatomic origin will result in:

. A graft that is tight in extension and loose in flexion
. A graft that is tight in flexion and increases patellofemoral contact pressures
. A graft that remains isometric throughout the arc of motion
. Recurrent lateral patellar dislocation in deep flexion
. Iatrogenic patella baja

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A graft that is tight in flexion and increases patellofemoral contact pressures


Explanation

A femoral tunnel placed too proximal and anterior results in an MPFL graft that tightens excessively in knee flexion. This non-anatomic placement restricts flexion and dramatically increases medial patellofemoral articular contact pressures.

Question 38

Topic: Knee Sports

The primary restraint to valgus stress of the knee at 30 degrees of flexion is the:

. Superficial medial collateral ligament
. Deep medial collateral ligament
. Posterior oblique ligament
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posteromedial capsule

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superficial medial collateral ligament


Explanation

The superficial MCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress, providing nearly 80% of the resisting force at 30 degrees of knee flexion.

Question 39

Topic: Knee Sports

A 16-year-old gymnast presents with knee pain, and radiographs reveal an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion. What is the most common anatomic location for an OCD lesion in the knee?

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Lateral aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Inferior pole of the patella
. Central trochlear groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle


Explanation

The lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle is the classic and most common site for osteochondritis dissecans of the knee, accounting for roughly 70% of cases.

Question 40

Topic: Knee Sports

During a posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction, the surgeon must protect the neurovascular bundle located posterior to the capsule. The most anterior structure of this bundle at the level of the joint line is the:

. Popliteal vein
. Tibial nerve
. Popliteal artery
. Common peroneal nerve
. Sural nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Popliteal artery


Explanation

From anterior to posterior at the level of the knee joint line, the popliteal artery is the most anterior structure. It sits directly posterior to the joint capsule, making it highly vulnerable during PCL surgery.