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Question 201

Topic: Knee Sports

During the evaluation of a patient with a suspected multiligamentous knee injury, the examiner performs a 'quadriceps active test.' The knee is positioned at 90 degrees of flexion with the foot flat on the table, and the patient is asked to slide the foot forward against resistance. An anterior shift of the tibia is observed. This finding indicates a deficiency of which structure?

. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterolateral corner
. Posteromedial corner
. Medial patellofemoral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

The quadriceps active test assesses for posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) deficiency. In a PCL-deficient knee flexed to 90 degrees, the tibia subluxates posteriorly; active quadriceps contraction pulls the tibia anteriorly, reducing the subluxation.

Question 202

Topic: Knee Sports
Microfracture is a marrow-stimulating technique used to treat focal chondral defects. The repair tissue that fills the defect following a successful microfracture procedure is predominantly composed of which type of collagen?
. Type II collagen
. Type III collagen
. Type IX collagen
. Type I collagen
. Type XI collagen

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type I collagen


Explanation

Microfracture allows bone marrow elements to form a super-clot in the chondral defect. The resulting repair tissue is fibrocartilage, which is biomechanically inferior to native hyaline cartilage and is composed predominantly of Type I collagen.

Question 203

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old football player sustains a direct blow to the anteromedial aspect of his knee. Physical examination reveals increased external rotation of the tibia at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetric rotation at 90 degrees when compared to the contralateral side. Which structure is most likely injured?

. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterolateral corner
. Medial collateral ligament
. Posterior oblique ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral corner


Explanation

An isolated injury to the posterolateral corner (PLC) causes increased external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion but not at 90 degrees. Combined PLC and PCL injuries typically show increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.

Question 204

Topic: Knee Sports
During the surgical approach for a medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction, the femoral insertion site is identified using fluoroscopy to locate Schöttle's point. Where is this radiographic point located anatomically?
. Anterior to the posterior femoral cortex line
. Distal to the posterior articular margin
. 1 mm anterior to the posterior cortex line and 2.5 mm distal to the posterior articular border
. Directly on the medial epicondyle
. Proximal to the adductor tubercle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1 mm anterior to the posterior cortex line and 2.5 mm distal to the posterior articular border


Explanation

Schöttle's point is a radiographic landmark for the femoral MPFL footprint. It is defined as 1 mm anterior to the posterior cortex line, 2.5 mm distal to the posterior articular margin, and proximal to Blumensaat's line.

Question 205

Topic: Knee Sports

A 16-year-old male gymnast presents with anterior knee pain, swelling, and episodic catching. Radiographs and MRI confirm osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the knee. What is the most common anatomical location for this lesion?

. Medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Central trochlear groove
. Inferior pole of the patella
. Lateral tibial plateau

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle


Explanation

The classic and most frequent location for osteochondritis dissecans in the knee is the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle, accounting for over 70% of cases.

Question 206

Topic: Knee Sports

In evaluating a failed ACL reconstruction, it is noted that the femoral tunnel was placed vertically (at the 12 o'clock position) in the intercondylar notch. Which of the following physical examination findings is most likely directly attributable to this specific technical error?

. Positive posterior drawer test
. Negative Lachman test with a positive pivot shift
. Positive dial test at 30 degrees
. Positive anterior drawer test in external rotation
. Negative pivot shift with a positive Lachman test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Negative Lachman test with a positive pivot shift


Explanation

A vertical graft adequately resists anterior tibial translation (rendering a negative Lachman test) but fails to properly resist rotational forces, resulting in persistent rotational instability and a positive pivot shift test.

Question 207

Topic: Knee Sports

A 28-year-old male sustained a multiligament knee injury. Examination reveals a foot drop and decreased sensation over the dorsal aspect of his foot. Which specific ligamentous injury pattern is most highly associated with this neurological deficit?

. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear
. Posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
. Posteromedial corner (PMC) injury
. Proximal patellar tendon rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral corner (PLC) injury


Explanation

Common peroneal nerve palsies are highly associated with injuries to the posterolateral corner (PLC) and lateral collateral ligament (LCL) of the knee due to their anatomic proximity at the fibular head.

Question 208

Topic: Knee Sports

The anteromedial (AM) and posterolateral (PL) bundles of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) have distinct biomechanical roles. Which of the following statements is true regarding the PL bundle?

. It is tightest in full extension
. It is tightest at 90 degrees of flexion
. It primarily resists anterior translation at 90 degrees
. It is larger than the AM bundle
. It originates proximal to the AM bundle on the femoral footprint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It is tightest in full extension


Explanation

The posterolateral (PL) bundle of the ACL is tightest in extension and serves as the primary restraint to rotatory loads. The anteromedial (AM) bundle is tightest in flexion.

Question 209

Topic: Knee Sports

Biomechanical studies have shown that a medial meniscus posterior root tear alters knee joint contact pressures most similarly to which of the following conditions?

. Normal native knee
. Anterior cruciate ligament deficient knee
. Total medial meniscectomy
. Partial medial meniscectomy
. Posterior cruciate ligament deficient knee

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total medial meniscectomy


Explanation

A posterior root tear disrupts the hoop stresses of the meniscus, causing it to extrude. This results in an increase in peak contact pressures and a decrease in contact area equivalent to a total medial meniscectomy.

Question 210

Topic: Knee Sports

Which of the following structures is considered the primary static restraint to lateral patellar translation at 20 degrees of knee flexion?

. Medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL)
. Medial patellotibial ligament
. Trochlear groove geometry
. Vastus medialis obliquus (VMO)
. Lateral retinaculum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL)


Explanation

The MPFL is the primary soft-tissue restraint to lateral patellar translation in early flexion (0 to 30 degrees). Beyond 30 degrees, the bony geometry of the trochlea becomes the primary stabilizer.

Question 211

Topic: Knee Sports

A patient with a suspected posterolateral corner (PLC) injury undergoes the Dial test. The test reveals greater than 10 degrees of increased external rotation compared to the contralateral knee at 30 degrees of flexion, but normal and symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees. This finding suggests:

. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury
. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
. Combined PCL and PLC injury
. Combined ACL and PLC injury
. Isolated popliteus tendon tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury


Explanation

Increased external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion that reduces at 90 degrees indicates an isolated PLC injury. If the external rotation remains asymmetrical at 90 degrees, it suggests a combined PLC and PCL injury.

Question 212

Topic: Knee Sports

In the evaluation of a traumatic multi-ligament knee injury, the presence of a 'dimple sign' on the medial joint line typically indicates which of the following?

. Incarceration of the medial meniscus
. Posterolateral corner avulsion
. Irreducible posterolateral knee dislocation with medial capsule invagination
. Associated tibial plateau fracture
. Complete MPFL rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Irreducible posterolateral knee dislocation with medial capsule invagination


Explanation

The 'dimple sign' represents buttonholing of the medial femoral condyle through the anteromedial capsule in a posterolateral knee dislocation. This finding indicates that the dislocation is irreducible by closed means and requires open reduction.

Question 213

Topic: Knee Sports

During an arthroscopic anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, the surgeon evaluates the native ACL footprint. The anteromedial (AM) bundle of the ACL is primarily responsible for providing:

. Rotational stability near full extension
. Anterior translational stability in flexion
. Posterior translational stability in extension
. Varus stability at 30 degrees
. Valgus stability at 90 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior translational stability in flexion


Explanation

The ACL is composed of two main bundles. The anteromedial (AM) bundle tightens in flexion to control anterior translation, while the posterolateral (PL) bundle tightens in extension to control rotational stability.

Question 214

Topic: Knee Sports

A 19-year-old female presents with recurrent patellar dislocation. Lateral knee radiographs reveal a Caton-Deschamps index of 1.4. This radiographic finding indicates the presence of:

. Patella baja
. Patella alta
. Normal patellar height
. Trochlear dysplasia
. Increased tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patella alta


Explanation

The Caton-Deschamps index measures the ratio of the distance from the inferior pole of the patella to the anterior superior angle of the tibia over the articular length of the patella. A ratio > 1.2 indicates patella alta.

Question 215

Topic: Knee Sports

Following a direct blow to the proximal tibia with the knee flexed, a patient demonstrates a positive posterior drawer test. The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) consists of two bundles. Which bundle is typically the tightest in knee flexion?

. Anteromedial bundle of the ACL
. Posterolateral bundle of the ACL
. Anterolateral bundle of the PCL
. Posteromedial bundle of the PCL
. Posterior oblique ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterolateral bundle of the PCL


Explanation

The PCL has a larger anterolateral (AL) bundle and a smaller posteromedial (PM) bundle. The AL bundle is tight in knee flexion, whereas the PM bundle is tight in knee extension.

Question 216

Topic: Knee Sports

Which of the following clinical tests is considered the most specific for diagnosing an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear?

. Anterior drawer test
. Lachman test
. Pivot shift test
. McMurray test
. Apley grind test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pivot shift test


Explanation

The pivot shift test evaluates rotational instability and is the most specific test (approx. 98%) for an ACL tear. The Lachman test is considered the most sensitive test.

Question 217

Topic: Knee Sports

The rapid and significant pain relief observed following a successful vertebroplasty is primarily attributed to mechanical stabilization of the microfractures and:

. Decompression of the central spinal canal
. Thermal necrosis of intraosseous nociceptive nerve endings
. Significant restoration of vertebral body height
. Chemical neurolysis from unreacted monomer leakage
. Improved vascular supply to the anterior spinal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thermal necrosis of intraosseous nociceptive nerve endings


Explanation

Pain relief in vertebroplasty is widely believed to result from the immediate mechanical stabilization of trabecular microfractures. Additionally, the exothermic polymerization of the PMMA cement causes thermal necrosis of intraosseous nerve endings, contributing to analgesia.

Question 218

Topic: Knee Sports

According to the Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity (TLICS) score, which of the following patients has an absolute indication for surgical intervention?

. Compression fracture (1), PLC intact (0), neurologically intact (0)
. Burst fracture (2), PLC intact (0), neurologically intact (0)
. Compression fracture (1), PLC suspected/indeterminate (1), neurologically intact (0)
. Translation/rotation injury (3), PLC disrupted (3), incomplete spinal cord injury (3)
. Burst fracture (2), PLC intact (0), isolated nerve root injury (2)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Translation/rotation injury (3), PLC disrupted (3), incomplete spinal cord injury (3)


Explanation

A TLICS score of >4 is an indication for surgery. The translation/rotation injury (3) with PLC disruption (3) and incomplete cord injury (3) scores a 9, strongly indicating surgical stabilization.

Question 219

Topic: Knee Sports

A 35-year-old construction worker falls from a height and sustains a burst fracture of L1. Neurological examination is completely normal. Which of the following radiographic findings would be an absolute indication for surgical stabilization rather than conservative management?

. 10 degrees of kyphotic angulation
. 20% loss of anterior vertebral body height
. Retropulsion of bone fragments occupying 20% of the canal
. Posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) disruption
. Transverse process fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) disruption


Explanation

Disruption of the posterior ligamentous complex (PLC) renders a thoracolumbar fracture highly unstable, dictating surgical stabilization. Degree of retropulsion alone without neurologic deficit or PLC injury does not absolutely mandate surgery.

Question 220

Topic: Knee Sports

A 13-year-old boy presents with vague anterior knee pain. Radiographs demonstrate an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion. What is the most common anatomic location for this lesion in the knee?

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Lateral aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Inferior pole of the patella

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle


Explanation

The classic and most common location for an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion of the knee is the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle (LAME acronym).