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4. Pediatrics MCQs

Practice Set 65 of 334

This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 4. Pediatrics. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.

Question 1281

Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine

A surgeon is performing a closing wedge osteotomy to correct a 25-degree distal femoral recurvatum deformity. Intraoperative fluoroscopy, as shown, demonstrates the closure of the posterior wedge while preserving the anterior cortex. This technique is a direct application of Paley's Osteotomy Rule One. What is the primary biomechanical advantage of preserving the anterior cortex as an intact hinge in this specific scenario?

. A. It facilitates easier bone graft placement in the posterior gap.
. B. It allows for controlled limb lengthening during correction.
. C. It provides immense intrinsic stability, dictates the sagittal plane of correction, and prevents unwanted translation.
. D. It minimizes blood loss by preserving the anterior vascular supply to the femur.
. E. It enables the use of an external fixator without the need for internal fixation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C. It provides immense intrinsic stability, dictates the sagittal plane of correction, and prevents unwanted translation.

Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe case explicitly highlights the critical technical pearl of preserving the anterior cortex as an 'intact cortical hinge' during a closing wedge osteotomy for distal femoral recurvatum. This maneuver is crucial because it effectively places the Axis of Correction of Angulation (ACA) directly at the anterior cortex. Since the CORA for this deformity is also located at the anterior cortex, this perfectly satisfies Paley's Osteotomy Rule One. The biomechanical advantage is immense: the intact hinge provides intrinsic stability, dictates the precise sagittal plane of correction, and actively prevents unwanted translation, rotation, or excessive shortening during the closure of the wedge. This ensures a pure angular correction without iatrogenic translation.Option Ais incorrect. While bone graft might be used in some osteotomies, the primary purpose of the cortical hinge is not to facilitate graft placement, and closing wedges typically don't require grafting in the same way opening wedges do.Option Bis incorrect. Closing wedge osteotomies inherently cause some limb shortening, not lengthening. Lengthening is associated with opening wedge osteotomies or distraction osteogenesis.Option Dis incorrect. While preserving soft tissues is generally good for vascularity, the primary biomechanical role of the cortical hinge is mechanical stability and controlled correction, not solely blood loss reduction.Option Eis incorrect. The cortical hinge provides stability to the osteotomy itself, but it does not negate the need for appropriate internal or external fixation to maintain the correction and allow for healing.

Question 1282

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 12-year-old patient presents with a congenital deformity of the distal femur. Radiographic analysis reveals a Posterior Distal Femoral Angle (PDFA) of 70 degrees. Based on this measurement and the principles of sagittal plane analysis, which of the following best describes this deformity?

. A. Normal sagittal alignment, requiring no intervention.
. B. Distal femoral recurvatum, an apex posterior deformity.
. C. Distal femoral procurvatum, an apex anterior deformity.
. D. Distal femoral varus, a frontal plane deformity.
. E. Distal femoral valgus, a frontal plane deformity.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C. Distal femoral procurvatum, an apex anterior deformity.

Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe case defines the normal PDFA as approximately 83 degrees, with a physiologic range of 79 to 87 degrees. It states that a decreased PDFA (e.g., <79 degrees) signifies an apex anterior deformity, known as procurvatum (flexion). A PDFA of 70 degrees falls below the normal range, indicating a distal femoral procurvatum.Option Ais incorrect, as 70 degrees is outside the normal range.Option Bis incorrect. Distal femoral recurvatum is characterized by an increased PDFA (>87 degrees), signifying an apex posterior deformity.Options D and Eare incorrect. Distal femoral varus and valgus are frontal plane deformities, whereas PDFA measures sagittal plane alignment.

Question 1283

Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine

A 40-year-old patient with a history of distal femoral trauma presents with a gait abnormality. A weight-bearing lateral radiograph is obtained. The sagittal mechanical axis, represented by a plumb line from the center of the femoral head, passes significantly posterior to the center of the knee joint. Based on the case description, what does this finding indicate?

. A. Normal sagittal alignment, as the mechanical axis should pass posterior to the knee.
. B. Proximal femoral procurvatum, causing the knee to shift anteriorly.
. C. Distal femoral recurvatum, where the knee joint is positioned posterior to the mechanical plumb line.
. D. Tibial procurvatum, causing the knee to shift posteriorly.
. E. A compensatory ankle equinus deformity, unrelated to femoral alignment.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C. Distal femoral recurvatum, where the knee joint is positioned posterior to the mechanical plumb line.

Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe case explicitly defines the sagittal mechanical axis: 'In a normally aligned lower limb, this mechanical plumb line passes directly through the center of the knee joint and falls slightly anterior to the ankle joint center.' It then states, 'When the distal femur is deformed into recurvatum, the knee joint is positioned posterior to this plumb line.' Therefore, a sagittal mechanical axis passing significantly posterior to the center of the knee joint is a direct indication of distal femoral recurvatum.Option Ais incorrect, as normal alignment requires the mechanical axis to passthroughthe center of the knee, not posterior to it.Option Bis incorrect. Proximal femoral procurvatum would typically cause the knee to shift anteriorly relative to the mechanical axis, or lead to a flexion deformity.Option Dis incorrect. Tibial procurvatum would cause an apex anterior deformity of the tibia, which would tend to position the knee anteriorly relative to the mechanical axis, or cause a fixed flexion deformity.Option Eis incorrect. While compensatory ankle deformities can occur, the primary finding described (knee posterior to the mechanical axis) directly points to a femoral sagittal plane deformity.

Question 1284

Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine

A 30-year-old patient with a 25-degree distal femoral recurvatum deformity is scheduled for a closing wedge osteotomy. The CORA has been identified at the anterior cortex. To achieve a pure angular correction without translation, what is the correct geometric design for the resected bone wedge?

. A. A 25-degree wedge with its base anterior and apex posterior, located at the CORA.
. B. A 25-degree wedge with its base posterior and apex anterior, terminating precisely at the CORA on the anterior cortex.
. C. A 25-degree wedge with equal anterior and posterior resection, centered at the CORA.
. D. A 25-degree wedge with its base medial and apex lateral, to correct the sagittal plane deformity.
. E. A 25-degree wedge with its base lateral and apex medial, to correct the sagittal plane deformity.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. B. A 25-degree wedge with its base posterior and apex anterior, terminating precisely at the CORA on the anterior cortex.

Explanation

Correct Answer: BThe case describes the biomechanics of a closing wedge osteotomy for distal femoral recurvatum. Recurvatum is an apex posterior deformity, meaning the distal segment is tilted anteriorly. To correct this, the osteotomy must 'close' posteriorly. Therefore, the geometry of the wedge is dictated as follows: 'The base of the resected wedge is posterior. The apex of the resected wedge is anterior, terminating precisely at the CORA on the anterior cortex.' This design allows for the posterior gap to close, correcting the hyperextension, while the anterior cortex acts as the hinge, fulfilling Paley's Rule One for pure angular correction.Option Ais incorrect. A wedge with its base anterior and apex posterior would correct a procurvatum (flexion) deformity, not recurvatum.Option Cis incorrect. Equal anterior and posterior resection would not create a wedge for angular correction; it would primarily shorten the bone.Options D and Eare incorrect. Medial/lateral wedge resections are for frontal plane deformities (varus/valgus), not sagittal plane recurvatum.

Question 1285

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

Which of the following biological and mechanical factors is most critical for optimizing regenerate bone formation during distraction osteogenesis according to Ilizarov's principles?

. Extensive periosteal stripping to increase inflammatory response
. Preservation of the periosteum and endosteal blood supply with a low-energy corticotomy
. Immediate acute distraction to 1 cm
. A distraction rate of 3 mm per day
. Rigid fixation with absolutely no micromotion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Preservation of the periosteum and endosteal blood supply with a low-energy corticotomy

Explanation

Ilizarov's principles for successful distraction osteogenesis emphasize a low-energy corticotomy that preserves the periosteal and endosteal blood supply. Immediate distraction or high rates (3 mm/day) lead to nonunion, while lack of micromotion can inhibit regenerate maturation.

Question 1286

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

Which of the following mechanical modifications increases the overall stiffness of an Ilizarov circular frame configuration?

. Decreasing the wire diameter
. Increasing the distance between the bone and the rings
. Using smooth wires instead of olive wires
. Decreasing the ring diameter
. Decreasing the crossing angle of the wires to 30 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreasing the ring diameter

Explanation

Decreasing the ring diameter shortens the working length of the wires, significantly increasing frame stiffness. Other methods to increase stiffness include increasing wire diameter, increasing wire tension, and crossing wires at angles close to 90 degrees.

Question 1287

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 5-year-old girl with a congenital short femur has a current limb length discrepancy (LLD) of 3 cm. Using the Paley multiplier method for congenital deformities (multiplier = 1.5 for girls at age 5), what is her predicted limb length discrepancy at skeletal maturity if left untreated?

. 3.0 cm
. 4.5 cm
. 6.0 cm
. 2.0 cm
. 7.5 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 4.5 cm

Explanation

The Paley multiplier method predicts LLD at skeletal maturity by multiplying the current LLD by the age- and gender-specific multiplier. For this patient: 3 cm x 1.5 = 4.5 cm predicted discrepancy at maturity.

Question 1288

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 12-year-old child undergoes focal dome osteotomy for a severe varus deformity of the proximal tibia. The mechanical axis is completely medial to the knee. If the surgeon decides to use an opening wedge correction technique using an external fixator, where must the hinge (ACA) be positioned?

. On the concave cortex of the deformity
. On the convex cortex of the deformity
. At the center of the medullary canal
. At the level of the knee joint line
. Distal to the tibial tuberosity on the anterior crest

Correct Answer & Explanation

. On the convex cortex of the deformity

Explanation

For an opening wedge osteotomy, the hinge (Angulation Correction Axis) must be placed on the convex cortex (the lateral cortex in a varus deformity). Placing it on the concave cortex would result in a closing wedge correction.

Question 1289

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 25-year-old male is undergoing tibial lengthening via distraction osteogenesis. The classic Ilizarov protocol dictates a specific rate and rhythm to optimize the bone healing index. Which of the following represents the standard ideal protocol?

. 0.5 mm per day, adjusted as a single daily maneuver.
. 1.0 mm per day, divided into four 0.25 mm increments.
. 1.5 mm per day, divided into three 0.5 mm increments.
. 2.0 mm per day, divided into four 0.5 mm increments.
. 1.0 mm per week, adjusted continuously over 7 days.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1.0 mm per day, divided into four 0.25 mm increments.

Explanation

Ilizarov's fundamental research established that a rate of 1.0 mm per day provides the ideal balance between bone regeneration and soft tissue adaptation. Dividing this into 0.25 mm increments every 6 hours (rhythm) optimizes the regenerate quality.

Question 1290

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

During a closing wedge osteotomy for a tibial varus deformity, the surgeon meticulously makes two converging cuts with an oscillating saw. After removing the bone wedge, a gentle bending force is applied to close the osteotomy. The surgeon observes that the concave cortex, which was intentionally preserved, undergoes a controlled 'greenstick' fracture. What is the primary biomechanical advantage of this specific technique?

. It allows for easier intraoperative adjustment of the correction angle.
. It minimizes blood loss by preserving the periosteal blood supply to the bone ends.
. It provides significant intrinsic rotational and translational stability to the osteotomy site.
. It reduces the need for any internal fixation hardware, such as plates or screws.
. It facilitates rapid bone healing by increasing the surface area for callus formation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It provides significant intrinsic rotational and translational stability to the osteotomy site.

Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe case explicitly states that in a closing wedge osteotomy under Rule One, the concave cortex is carefully preserved and acts as a biological 'hinge.' When this hinge is gently cracked (plastically deformed) during closure, combined with its intact, thick periosteal sleeve, it provides exceptional rotational and translational stability. This stability is crucial as it allows the bone itself to share the mechanical load with the applied fixation, thereby reducing stress on the hardware and promoting healing.Option A is incorrect:While some minor adjustments might be possible, the primary advantage is stability, not ease of adjustment. The angle is determined preoperatively.Option B is incorrect:While preserving the periosteum does help maintain blood supply, the primary biomechanical advantage of thehingeitself is stability, not solely blood loss minimization.Option D is incorrect:While the stability provided by the hingereduces the mechanical stresson the hardware, it does not eliminate the need for internal fixation. The text mentions it reduces the risk of hardware fatigue and failure, implying hardware is still used.Option E is incorrect:While bone healing is the ultimate goal, the 'greenstick' fracture of the concave cortex doesn't primarily increase surface area for callus formation. The stability it provides is what indirectly promotes healing by minimizing micromotion.

Question 1291

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 50-year-old female presents with a severe valgus knee deformity. Preoperative full-length weight-bearing radiographs show a Mechanical Axis Deviation (MAD) of 25mm lateral to the center of the knee. Which of the following joint orientation angle measurements would be most consistent with a primary distal femoral deformity contributing to this valgus malalignment?

. MPTA of 88°
. mLDFA of 80°
. JLCA of 3°
. LDTA of 89°
. mLPFA of 92°

Correct Answer & Explanation

. mLDFA of 80°

Explanation

Correct Answer: BThe case content defines the Mechanical Lateral Distal Femoral Angle (mLDFA) as defining the relationship between the femoral mechanical axis and the distal femoral joint line. It states that anmLDFA < 85° indicates distal femoral valgus. A valgus knee deformity with a lateral MAD is consistent with distal femoral valgus. Therefore, an mLDFA of 80° (which is less than 85°) directly points to a primary distal femoral deformity as a significant contributor to the overall valgus malalignment.Option A (MPTA of 88°)is incorrect. The Medial Proximal Tibial Angle (MPTA) defines the relationship between the tibial mechanical axis and the proximal tibial joint line. A normal range is 85° to 90°. An MPTA of 88° is within the normal range, indicating no significant proximal tibial varus or valgus deformity.Option C (JLCA of 3°)is incorrect. The Joint Line Convergence Angle (JLCA) measures the angle between the distal femoral and proximal tibial joint lines. An increased JLCA (> 2°) suggests gapping due to ligamentous laxity or severe cartilage loss, not a primary bony deformity contributing to valgus.Option D (LDTA of 89°)is incorrect. The Lateral Distal Tibial Angle (LDTA) assesses ankle joint orientation. A normal range is 86° to 92°. An LDTA of 89° is within the normal range, indicating no significant distal tibial deformity.Option E (mLPFA of 92°)is incorrect. The Mechanical Lateral Proximal Femoral Angle (mLPFA) evaluates proximal femoral geometry. A normal range is 85° to 95°. An mLPFA of 92° is within the normal range, indicating no significant proximal femoral deformity (like coxa vara or coxa valga).

Question 1292

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 12-year-old patient presents with a severe congenital bowing deformity of the tibia. Preoperative planning identifies multiple CORAs along the length of the diaphysis. The surgeon plans a multi-level osteotomy. Which of the following surgical pearls from the case content is most relevant to this specific scenario?

. Always ensure patella-forward alignment on long-leg films.
. When performing a closing wedge with planned translation, translate first, then angulate.
. For long bowing deformities, do not force a single CORA. Map multiple CORAs and plan a multi-level osteotomy to avoid massive, unnatural translation.
. Use plates for simple, single-plane metaphyseal corrections.
. Always respect the concave soft tissues; prophylactic nerve decompressions may be mandatory.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. For long bowing deformities, do not force a single CORA. Map multiple CORAs and plan a multi-level osteotomy to avoid massive, unnatural translation.

Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe scenario describes a "long bowing deformity" with "multiple CORAs" and a plan for a "multi-level osteotomy." The case content's surgical pearls explicitly state:"For long bowing deformities, do not force a single CORA. Map multiple CORAs and plan a multi-level osteotomy to avoid massive, unnatural translation."This pearl directly addresses the challenge of correcting long, diffuse deformities and is crucial for achieving a natural, well-aligned limb without creating iatrogenic issues.Option A (Always ensure patella-forward alignment on long-leg films)is a general imaging pearl, important for all lower extremity deformity planning, but not specific to the challenge of multiple CORAs in a long bowing deformity.Option B (When performing a closing wedge with planned translation, translate first, then angulate)is a pearl specific to the execution of Rule 2 with a closing wedge, not directly related to identifying multiple CORAs.Option D (Use plates for simple, single-plane metaphyseal corrections)is a pearl regarding hardware choice, not directly related to the planning for multiple CORAs.Option E (Always respect the concave soft tissues; prophylactic nerve decompressions may be mandatory)is a pearl regarding soft tissue management, particularly for large acute corrections, but not specific to the identification and management of multiple CORAs.

Question 1293

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

When constructing a circular external fixator (Ilizarov) for tibial lengthening, which of the following modifications will most effectively increase the axial stiffness of the frame?

. Using a larger diameter ring to increase clearance from the skin.
. Decreasing the tension on the transfixion wires from 130 kg to 90 kg.
. Increasing the crossing angle of the transfixion wires towards 90 degrees.
. Positioning the rings further apart from each other along the diaphysis.
. Utilizing half-pins rather than tensioned wires for all fixation points.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increasing the crossing angle of the transfixion wires towards 90 degrees.

Explanation

Axial and torsional stiffness of a circular frame are maximized when the tensioned wires cross as close to 90 degrees as anatomically possible. Other factors increasing stiffness include smaller rings, thicker wires, higher wire tension, and closer ring proximity.

Question 1294

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

During tibial lengthening using an Ilizarov frame, a patient is instructed to perform 1 mm of distraction per day. Which of the following rhythms of distraction optimizes bone regenerate formation and minimizes soft tissue complications?

. 1.0 mm once daily
. 0.5 mm twice daily
. 0.25 mm four times daily
. 0.125 mm eight times daily
. Continuous motorized distraction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Continuous motorized distraction

Explanation

Ilizarov's principles demonstrated that high-frequency distraction produces the best quality bone regenerate and minimizes soft tissue trauma. While 0.25 mm four times daily is the standard manual protocol, continuous motorized distraction is biologically superior.

Question 1295

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 10-year-old girl presents with symptomatic genu valgum. Radiographs show a mechanical axis passing through the lateral compartment of the knee, an mLDFA of 81 degrees, and an MPTA of 88 degrees. Her physes remain widely open. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Medial distal femoral closing wedge osteotomy
. Lateral proximal tibial opening wedge osteotomy
. Medial distal femoral hemiepiphysiodesis
. Lateral proximal tibial hemiepiphysiodesis
. Bilateral distal femoral complete epiphysiodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial distal femoral hemiepiphysiodesis

Explanation

The primary deformity is located in the distal femur, as indicated by the abnormal mLDFA of 81 degrees (valgus). In a growing child with sufficient remaining growth, a medial distal femoral hemiepiphysiodesis (guided growth) will tether the medial physis, allowing lateral growth to correct the valgus.

Question 1296

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

When using the Paley Multiplier Method to predict limb length discrepancy (LLD) at skeletal maturity for a pediatric patient, what two primary data points are required?

. Current age and skeletal age
. Current LLD and chronological age-specific multiplier
. Femoral length and tibial length
. Current height and parental height
. Skeletal age and current length of the normal limb

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Current LLD and chronological age-specific multiplier

Explanation

The Paley Multiplier method calculates LLD at maturity simply by multiplying the patient's current LLD by an age- and sex-specific multiplier. It effectively utilizes chronological age rather than requiring skeletal age assessments.

Question 1297

Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine

A 22-year-old patient presents with a distal femoral valgus deformity and an associated external rotation of the distal segment. The surgeon plans a supracondylar femoral osteotomy. Considering the unique biomechanics of distal femoral deformities compared to proximal femoral deformities, which statement accurately describes the surgical approach to simultaneous angulation and rotation correction in this specific scenario?

. Simultaneous correction is highly complex and generally avoided due to significant bone end translation.
. The mechanical axis lies far medial to the bone, necessitating compensatory angular cuts for rotation.
. The mechanical and anatomic axes converge distally, making simultaneous correction geometrically simpler with less translation.
. Rotation must always be corrected first, followed by angular correction, regardless of the femoral segment.
. The illusion of femoral neck length changes is a major confounding factor in distal femoral osteotomies.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The mechanical and anatomic axes converge distally, making simultaneous correction geometrically simpler with less translation.

Explanation

Correct Answer: CThe case states under 'The Simplicity of Distal Femoral Osteotomies': 'In stark contrast to the proximal femur, distal femoral osteotomies are far more forgiving. As the mechanical axis travels distally down the leg, it naturally converges with the anatomic axis, eventually meeting at the exact center of the knee joint. A supracondylar femoral osteotomy is therefore performed at a level where the mechanical and anatomic axes are very close together or entirely coincident. Because the mechanical axis passes directly through or very near the distal osteotomy site, acute derotation around the mechanical axis does not cause significant translation or gapping of the bone ends. This anatomic reality makes the simultaneous correction of angulation and rotation in the distal femur a much simpler geometric and surgical endeavor compared to the proximal femur.'Option A is incorrectbecause the text explicitly states it is 'much simpler' and 'far more forgiving' in the distal femur due to axis convergence.Option B is incorrectbecause the mechanical axis converges with the anatomic axis distally, unlike the proximal femur where it lies far medial.Option D is incorrectbecause while angulation first, then rotation is a general principle, the distal femur's unique biomechanics allow for simpler simultaneous correction, as described.Option E is incorrectbecause the illusion of femoral neck length changes is specific to the proximal femur and its neck, not relevant for distal femoral osteotomies.

Question 1298

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

During distraction osteogenesis utilizing the Ilizarov method, the standard recommended rate and rhythm for bone transport or lengthening in an adult is:

. 0.5 mm per day, performed in a single adjustment.
. 1.0 mm per day, performed in a single adjustment.
. 1.0 mm per day, divided into four 0.25 mm increments.
. 2.0 mm per day, divided into four 0.5 mm increments.
. 2.0 mm per day, performed in two 1.0 mm increments.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1.0 mm per day, divided into four 0.25 mm increments.

Explanation

Ilizarov's fundamental research established that a rate of 1.0 mm per day, divided into frequent smaller increments (rhythm of 0.25 mm every 6 hours), optimizes regenerate bone formation and minimizes soft tissue complications.

Question 1299

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

When calculating the expected leg length discrepancy (LLD) at skeletal maturity for a pediatric patient with a congenital femoral deficiency, the Paley Multiplier Method is highly favored. Which of the following statements regarding the Paley Multiplier is true?

. It requires three sequential radiographs taken exactly one year apart.
. It calculates LLD based on the patient's current percentile of growth, which must remain constant.
. It utilizes a sex- and age-specific multiplier that is independent of the child's growth percentile.
. It is only accurate for developmental discrepancies, not congenital ones.
. It relies exclusively on bone age rather than chronological age in all children.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It utilizes a sex- and age-specific multiplier that is independent of the child's growth percentile.

Explanation

The Paley Multiplier Method simplifies LLD prediction by multiplying the current discrepancy by a predetermined, age- and sex-specific factor. Its major advantage is that it is mathematically independent of the child's growth percentile.

Question 1300

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 35-year-old female undergoes correction of a multi-apical diaphyseal tibial deformity. The surgeon opts for a Taylor Spatial Frame (TSF). What is the fundamental mechanical advantage of the TSF over the classic Ilizarov frame?

. It utilizes thicker half-pins instead of fine tensioned wires.
. It relies on pure translation rather than angulation to achieve correction.
. It allows simultaneous correction of all six degrees of freedom via a virtual hinge.
. It completely eliminates the need for a latency period prior to distraction.
. It dynamically accelerates the rate of bone consolidation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It allows simultaneous correction of all six degrees of freedom via a virtual hinge.

Explanation

The Taylor Spatial Frame (TSF) is a hexapod fixator that uses a computer program to coordinate the movement of six struts. This allows for simultaneous, mathematically precise correction of angulation, translation, and rotation (six degrees of freedom) around a 'virtual' hinge.

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