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Question 861

Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 12-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his concerned parents. The boy's forearm is bowed, and his parents are confused as to the possible diagnosis and treatment options. You notice that the right forearm of the child is bowed ulnarwards and is shorter compared to the left forearm. The pronosupination is markedly decreased on the right side but is also limited on the left side. The patient has a good grip, pinch, and grasp. He is neurologically intact as well. The parents say that they first noticed the deformity around 6 or 7 years ago, and the mother informs you that she had noticed a hard bump on the forearm. She has recently noticed another bump on his right leg. The child does not complain of pain and is using both of his hands quite well. The parents were informed by a previous physician that the child has Madelung's deformity and are concerned that the disease is now involving other areas of his body. You order a radiograph of the patient's forearm. The anteroposterior radiograph is shown (Slide). The next step is to order a:
. Skeletal radiograph survey
. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) with wrist arthrogram
. Genetic evaluation
. Computed tomography (CT) scan

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Skeletal radiograph survey


Explanation

The next step is to order a skeletal survey to rule out involvement of other areas.

Question 862

Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 12-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his concerned parents. The boy's forearm is bowed, and his parents are confused as to the possible diagnosis and treatment options. You notice that the right forearm of the child is bowed ulnarwards and is shorter compared to the left forearm. The pronosupination is markedly decreased on the right side but is also limited on the left side. The patient has a good grip, pinch, and grasp. He is neurologically intact as well. The parents say that they first noticed the deformity around 6 or 7 years ago, and the mother informs you that she had noticed a hard bump on the forearm. She has recently noticed another bump on his right leg. The child does not complain of pain and is using both of his hands quite well. The parents were informed by a previous physician that the child has Madelung's deformity and are concerned that the disease is now involving other areas of his body. An immediate appointment for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and computed tomography (CT) scan are not available, and a genetic evaluation has been carried out previously. As you await the report from the geneticist's office, you decide to get a skeletal radiograph series on the patient. The radiograph of the opposite forearm (Slide 1) and right leg are shown (Slide 2). You order a radiograph of the forearm. The anteroposterior radiograph is shown (Slide 3). Your suspected diagnosis is:
. Diaphyseal achalasia
. Madelung's deformity
. Multiple enchondromatosis
. Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia
. Infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Diaphyseal achalasia


Explanation

Diaphyseal achalasia, also called multiple hereditary exostoses, classically presents in a young individual with multiple sites of involvement. The more involved the disease, the more likely hand involvement becomes. Forearm involvement is also common. The radius is bowed due to the shortened ulna. The risk of radial head dislocation is higher if the radius does not bow. While infection or traumatic injury could have produced early physeal arrest as seen in the first radiograph, presence of lesions elsewhere indicates multiple hereditary exostoses and should be investigated with skeletal surveys. Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia is not a possible diagnosis as only the ulna is involved in the first radiograph and radius alone in the left forearm. No enchondromas are present.

Question 863

Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 12-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his concerned parents. The boy's forearm is bowed, and his parents are confused as to the possible diagnosis and treatment options. You notice that the right forearm of the child is bowed ulnarwards and is shorter compared to the left forearm. The pronosupination is markedly decreased on the right side but is also limited on the left side. The patient has a good grip, pinch, and grasp. He is neurologically intact as well. The parents say that they first noticed the deformity around 6 or 7 years ago, and the mother informs you that she had noticed a hard bump on the forearm. She has recently noticed another bump on his right leg. The child does not complain of pain and is using both of his hands quite well. The parents were informed by a previous physician that the child has Madelung's deformity and are concerned that the disease is now involving other areas of his body. You order a radiograph of the forearm. The anteroposterior radiograph is shown (Slide 1). The child's skeletal radiograph survey is also presented (Slide 2 and Slide 3). The genetic pattern seen in patients with this type of presentation is:
. Autosomal recessive
. Autosomal dominant
. Sex-linked recessive
. Sex-linked dominant
. Sporadic

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Autosomal dominant


Explanation

Multiple hereditary exostoses is inherited in an autosomal-dominant manner with 90% penetrance.

Question 864

Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 12-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his concerned parents. The boy's forearm is bowed, and his parents are confused as to the possible diagnosis and treatment options. You notice that the right forearm of the child is bowed ulnarwards and is shorter compared to the left forearm. The pronosupination is markedly decreased on the right side but is also limited on the left side. The patient has a good grip, pinch, and grasp. He is neurologically intact as well. The parents say that they first noticed the deformity around 6 or 7 years ago, and the mother informs you that she had noticed a hard bump on the forearm. She has recently noticed another bump on his right leg. The child does not complain of pain and is using both of his hands quite well. The parents were informed by a previous physician that the child has Madelung's deformity and are concerned that the disease is now involving other areas of his body. You order a radiograph of the forearm. The anteroposterior radiograph is shown (Slide 1). The child's skeletal radiograph survey is also presented (Slide 2 and Slide 3). The chance of hand involvement in this child is:
. 0%
. 10%
. 25%
. Greater than 25%
. Undetermined

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Greater than 25%


Explanation

The hand is involved in 30% to 80% of cases.

Question 865

Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 12-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his concerned parents. The boy's forearm is bowed, and his parents are confused as to the possible diagnosis and treatment options. You notice that the right forearm of the child is bowed ulnarwards and is shorter compared to the left forearm. The pronosupination is markedly decreased on the right side but is also limited on the left side. The patient has a good grip, pinch, and grasp. He is neurologically intact as well. The parents say that they first noticed the deformity around 6 or 7 years ago, and the mother informs you that she had noticed a hard bump on the forearm. She has recently noticed another bump on his right leg. The child does not complain of pain and is using both of his hands quite well. The parents were informed by a previous physician that the child has Madelung's deformity and are concerned that the disease is now involving other areas of his body. You order a radiograph of the forearm. The anteroposterior radiograph is shown (Slide 1). The child's skeletal radiograph survey is also presented (Slide 2 and Slide 3). The difference between Madelung's deformity and this boy's condition is:
. The ulna is shorter
. The radius is shorter
. There is radial head dislocation
. There is bilateral involvement
. It is not congenital

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The radius is shorter


Explanation

The ulna is elongated or dorsally subluxed in Madelung's deformity.

Question 866

Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 12-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his concerned parents. The boy's forearm is bowed, and his parents are confused as to the possible diagnosis and treatment options. You notice that the right forearm of the child is bowed ulnarwards and is shorter compared to the left forearm. The pronosupination is markedly decreased on the right side but is also limited on the left side. The patient has a good grip, pinch, and grasp. He is neurologically intact as well. The parents say that they first noticed the deformity around 6 or 7 years ago, and the mother informs you that she had noticed a hard bump on the forearm. She has recently noticed another bump on his right leg. The child does not complain of pain and is using both of his hands quite well. The parents were informed by a previous physician that the child has Madelung's deformity and are concerned that the disease is now involving other areas of his body. You order a radiograph of the forearm. The anteroposterior radiograph is shown (Slide 1). The child's skeletal radiograph survey is also presented (Slide 2 and Slide 3). All of the following are acceptable options, either alone or in combination, for management of this child's condition, except:
. Excision of osteochondromas
. Ulnar lengthening
. Hemiphyseal stapling
. Radial osteotomy
. Observation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Radial osteotomy


Explanation

Although hemiphyseal stapling is an acceptable option to correct radial articular angulation, in this boy the distal radial physis is already fused as is seen in the first radiograph.

Question 867

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

An infant with Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH) is being treated with a Pavlik harness. If the anterior straps are adjusted to place the hips in excessive hyperflexion (greater than 120 degrees), the child is at highest risk for developing which of the following complications?

. Obturator nerve palsy
. Femoral nerve palsy
. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
. Inferior hip dislocation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral nerve palsy


Explanation

Hyperflexion of the hip in a Pavlik harness compresses the femoral nerve against the inguinal ligament, leading to a femoral nerve palsy. Conversely, excessive abduction places the infant at high risk for avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head.

Question 868

Topic: Pediatric Hip
In a child diagnosed with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease (idiopathic avascular necrosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis), what is the single most significant independent prognostic factor for developing premature hip osteoarthritis in adulthood?
. Age of the patient at the time of clinical onset
. The gender of the patient
. The presence of an ipsilateral knee effusion
. The patient's body mass index (BMI) at diagnosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Age of the patient at the time of clinical onset


Explanation

Age at clinical onset is the most critical prognostic factor in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease. Children who present at a younger age (typically under 6 to 8 years) have significantly more time for remodeling and generally achieve much better long-term outcomes.

Question 869

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A newborn presents with radial longitudinal deficiency (radial club hand). If Holt-Oram syndrome is suspected as the underlying genetic etiology, what is the most common associated congenital cardiac anomaly?

. Atrial septal defect (ASD)
. Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
. Tetralogy of Fallot
. Coarctation of the aorta
. Patent ductus arteriosus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Atrial septal defect (ASD)


Explanation

Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by upper limb defects (often radial sided) and congenital heart disease. An atrial septal defect (secundum type) is the most common cardiac anomaly seen in these patients.

Question 870

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 4-month-old infant is undergoing closed reduction for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). The intraoperative arthrogram demonstrates medial pooling of dye and a failure to achieve concentric reduction. Which anatomic structure most commonly blocks closed reduction extracapsularly?

. Ligamentum teres
. Pulvinar
. Transverse acetabular ligament
. Inverted limbus
. Iliopsoas tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliopsoas tendon


Explanation

While the pulvinar, ligamentum teres, and transverse acetabular ligament are common intracapsular blocks to reduction, the iliopsoas tendon is classically the most significant extracapsular block to closed reduction in DDH.

Question 871

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 13-year-old obese boy presents with left thigh pain and an obligatory external rotation of the hip during active flexion. A diagnosis of Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE) is made. What is the most devastating complication associated with forceful closed reduction of a displaced SCFE?

. Chondrolysis of the hip joint
. Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head
. Premature physeal closure
. Femoroacetabular impingement (CAM type)
. Leg length discrepancy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head


Explanation

Forceful or non-gentle closed reduction of a SCFE significantly increases the risk of avascular necrosis of the femoral head by kinking or tearing the already tenuous retinacular blood supply.

Question 872

Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine

A newborn presents with an absent radius and an absent thumb. Which of the following tests is most appropriate to rule out a life-threatening associated condition?

. Chromosomal breakage test
. Complete blood count
. Echocardiogram
. Renal ultrasound
. Spine radiograph

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chromosomal breakage test


Explanation

A newborn with an absent radius and absent thumb is highly suspicious for Fanconi anemia, which is fatal if missed due to aplastic anemia. A chromosomal breakage test using diepoxybutane is mandatory for diagnosis.

Question 873

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 13-year-old obese boy presents with a 3-week history of left thigh pain and a limp.

On physical examination, his left hip obligatorily externally rotates when flexed. What is the most appropriate definitive treatment?

. Closed reduction and spica casting
. In situ single screw fixation
. Closed reduction and pinning
. Proximal femoral osteotomy
. Observation with protected weight-bearing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. In situ single screw fixation


Explanation

The clinical presentation of obligatory external rotation with hip flexion in an obese adolescent is classic for slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). The gold standard treatment is in situ fixation with a single cannulated screw.

Question 874

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 12-year-old obese male presents with a stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) and undergoes in situ pinning. Six months later, he develops severe hip stiffness and a flexion contracture. Radiographs show significant uniform loss of the joint space. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Avascular necrosis (AVN)
. Chondrolysis
. Implant failure
. Femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)
. Septic arthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chondrolysis


Explanation

Chondrolysis is a severe complication of SCFE characterized by progressive stiffness, pain, and uniform loss of joint space. It is strongly associated with unrecognized pin penetration into the joint space during fixation.

Question 875

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 4-month-old infant is being treated with a Pavlik harness for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). During a follow-up visit, the infant is noted to have absent spontaneous extension of the knee on the treated side. Which nerve is most likely compressed due to improper harness positioning?

. Sciatic nerve
. Obturator nerve
. Femoral nerve
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
. Tibial nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral nerve


Explanation

Hyperflexion of the hip in a Pavlik harness can compress the femoral nerve, leading to decreased quadriceps function and absent knee extension. Treatment involves loosening or temporarily removing the anterior straps.

Question 876

Topic: Pediatric Hip

Prophylactic in situ pinning of the contralateral asymptomatic hip in Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE) is most strongly indicated in a patient with which of the following underlying conditions?

. Obesity
. Hypothyroidism
. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
. Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
. Trisomy 21

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hypothyroidism


Explanation

Endocrine disorders, such as hypothyroidism and renal osteodystrophy, significantly increase the risk of bilateral SCFE. In these populations, prophylactic pinning of the contralateral asymptomatic hip is highly recommended due to the high rate of subsequent slippage.

Question 877

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 3-month-old infant is being treated for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) with a Pavlik harness. Hyperflexion of the hips in the harness places the child at highest risk for which of the following complications?

. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
. Femoral nerve palsy
. Sciatic nerve palsy
. Inferior hip dislocation
. Obturator nerve palsy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral nerve palsy


Explanation

Hyperflexion of the hips in a Pavlik harness can compress the femoral nerve against the inguinal ligament, leading to transient femoral nerve palsy. In contrast, excessive abduction is the primary risk factor for avascular necrosis.

Question 878

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 13-year-old obese male presents with acute-on-chronic left hip pain and inability to bear weight. Radiographs confirm a severe, unstable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with the development of avascular necrosis (AVN) in this patient?

. Degree of initial slip displacement
. Time to surgical intervention greater than 24 hours
. Use of a single cannulated screw instead of two
. Inability to bear weight prior to surgery
. Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inability to bear weight prior to surgery


Explanation

Unstable SCFE, defined clinically by the inability to bear weight even with crutches, has the highest association with developing AVN. While aggressive reduction can also cause AVN, clinical instability is the primary patient-related prognostic factor.

Question 879

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 4-month-old infant is diagnosed with developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) after an ultrasound demonstrates a dislocated left hip with an alpha angle of 40 degrees. A Pavlik harness is prescribed. Which complication is most likely if the hip is positioned in excessive flexion?

. Femoral nerve palsy
. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
. Obturator nerve palsy
. Inferior dislocation of the hip
. Acetabular dysplasia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral nerve palsy


Explanation

Excessive flexion (>120 degrees) in a Pavlik harness can stretch and compress the femoral nerve, leading to a femoral nerve palsy. Excessive abduction, on the other hand, is the primary risk factor for avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

Question 880

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 12-year-old obese male undergoes in situ pinning for a stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Post-operatively, it is discovered that the screw penetrated the anterosuperior quadrant of the femoral head into the joint unrecognized. What is the most likely complication?

. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
. Chondrolysis
. Slip progression
. Femoral neck fracture
. Premature physeal closure leading to leg length discrepancy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chondrolysis


Explanation

Unrecognized intra-articular hardware penetration during SCFE fixation is the most common iatrogenic cause of chondrolysis. It leads to rapid, irreversible loss of articular cartilage and profound joint stiffness.