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Question 5961

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 10-month-old infant with achondroplasia presents with poor head control, hypotonia, and witnessed episodes of central sleep apnea. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Polysomnography followed by CPAP titration
. Flexion-extension radiographs of the cervical spine to assess for C1-C2 instability
. MRI of the craniocervical junction to evaluate for foramen magnum stenosis
. Application of a rigid cervical collar
. Genetic testing for FGFR3 mutation confirmation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MRI of the craniocervical junction to evaluate for foramen magnum stenosis


Explanation

Correct Answer: CInfants with achondroplasia are at high risk for foramen magnum stenosis, which can cause cervicomedullary compression. Symptoms include hypotonia, hyperreflexia, poor head control, central sleep apnea, and even sudden death. The presentation in this vignette is highly suspicious for cervicomedullary compression, making an urgent MRI of the craniocervical junction the most critical next step to determine if suboccipital decompression is required.

Question 5962

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 14-month-old infant with achondroplasia presents with a flexible thoracolumbar kyphosis of 40 degrees. Neurological examination is normal, and the child has just started pulling to stand. What is the most appropriate initial management for this spinal deformity?

. Immediate posterior spinal fusion
. Anterior and posterior spinal fusion
. Extension bracing (TLSO) for 23 hours a day
. Avoidance of unsupported sitting and encouragement of prone positioning
. Suboccipital decompression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avoidance of unsupported sitting and encouragement of prone positioning


Explanation

Correct Answer: Avoidance of unsupported sitting and encouragement of prone positioningThoracolumbar kyphosis is extremely common in infants with achondroplasia, primarily due to hypotonia and a large head size. The vast majority of these curves are flexible and will resolve spontaneously once the child begins walking and develops lumbar lordosis. The standard initial management is to avoid unsupported sitting (which exacerbates the kyphosis) and encourage prone positioning to develop the paraspinal musculature. Bracing is reserved for persistent or rigid curves later in childhood.

Question 5963

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

An infant presents with disproportionate short-trunk dwarfism, prominent joints, and a cleft palate. Spinal radiographs reveal characteristic coronal clefts in the vertebral bodies. Which of the following genetic mutations is most likely responsible for this skeletal dysplasia?

. FGFR3
. COMP
. COL1A1
. COL2A1
. SLC26A2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. COL2A1


Explanation

Correct Answer: COL2A1The clinical presentation of short-trunk dwarfism, prominent joints, cleft palate, and the classic radiographic finding of coronal clefts in the vertebral bodies (along with dumbbell-shaped femora) is highly characteristic of Kniest dysplasia. Kniest dysplasia is a type II collagenopathy caused by mutations in the COL2A1 gene. FGFR3 is associated with achondroplasia, COMP with pseudoachondroplasia, COL1A1 with osteogenesis imperfecta, and SLC26A2 with diastrophic dysplasia.

Question 5964

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 6-month-old infant with achondroplasia is noted to have central sleep apnea, hyperreflexia, and delayed motor milestones. MRI confirms severe cervicomedullary compression at the skull base. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. C1-C2 posterior spinal fusion
. Suboccipital decompression with or without C1 laminectomy
. Anterior odontoidectomy
. Placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt only
. Observation as this typically resolves with growth

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suboccipital decompression with or without C1 laminectomy


Explanation

Correct Answer: Suboccipital decompression with or without C1 laminectomyInfants with achondroplasia have a small foramen magnum due to premature closure of the synchondroses of the skull base. This can lead to severe cervicomedullary compression, presenting with central sleep apnea, hyperreflexia, hypotonia, and even sudden death. When symptomatic compression is confirmed on MRI, urgent surgical decompression via suboccipital craniectomy and C1 laminectomy is indicated. It does not resolve with growth and is a major cause of infant mortality in this population if left untreated.

Question 5965

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 10-month-old infant with achondroplasia is noted to have a prominent thoracolumbar kyphosis. Neurological examination is normal. Radiographs demonstrate a 35-degree thoracolumbar kyphosis with mild anterior wedging of L1. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Immediate anterior and posterior spinal fusion
. Application of a thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) for 23 hours a day
. Prohibition of unsupported sitting and encouragement of prone positioning
. Observation with annual radiographic follow-up only
. Surgical release of the tethered cord

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Prohibition of unsupported sitting and encouragement of prone positioning


Explanation

Thoracolumbar kyphosis in infants with achondroplasia is typically flexible and driven by hypotonia and a large head. Avoiding unsupported sitting and encouraging prone positioning allows spontaneous resolution in the vast majority of cases as the child begins to walk.

Question 5966

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A newborn is evaluated for skeletal disproportion. Radiographs reveal dumbbell-shaped femora, widened metaphyses, and coronal clefts in the vertebral bodies. Which of the following genetic mutations is most likely responsible?

. FGFR3
. COL2A1
. COMP
. SLC26A2
. TRPV4

Correct Answer & Explanation

. COL2A1


Explanation

The radiographic presence of dumbbell-shaped long bones and coronal clefts in the vertebral bodies is pathognomonic for Kniest dysplasia. This is an autosomal dominant condition caused by a mutation in the COL2A1 gene.

Question 5967

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

An infant presents with a long, narrow trunk and disproportionately short limbs. Over the next few years, the phenotype appears to 'reverse,' with the trunk becoming extremely short due to severe progressive kyphoscoliosis. A mutation in the TRPV4 gene is identified. What is the diagnosis?

. Kniest Dysplasia
. Metatropic Dysplasia
. Spondyloepimetaphyseal Dysplasia
. Diastrophic Dysplasia
. Chondroectodermal Dysplasia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metatropic Dysplasia


Explanation

Metatropic dysplasia (TRPV4 mutation) literally means 'changing form'. Patients are born with a relatively long trunk and short limbs, but develop severe, progressive kyphoscoliosis that drastically shortens the trunk relative to the limbs as they age.

Question 5968

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 14-year-old male with a known genetic disorder presents with a sharp, short-segmented angular scoliosis. Radiographs demonstrate vertebral body scalloping, 'penciling' of the apical ribs, and enlarged intervertebral foramina. Which genetic mutation is most likely responsible?

. FBN1
. NF1
. COL1A1
. COMP
. FGFR3

Correct Answer & Explanation

. NF1


Explanation

The findings described (dystrophic short-segment scoliosis, vertebral scalloping, penciled ribs, enlarged foramina) are classic for neurofibromatosis type 1. NF1 is caused by a mutation in the neurofibromin gene on chromosome 17.

Question 5969

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A term infant presents with a short trunk, protuberant abdomen, and multiple vertebral anomalies including hemivertebrae and block vertebrae leading to a 'crab-like' appearance of the rib cage on radiographs. The infant soon develops severe respiratory insufficiency. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Achondroplasia
. Jeune Syndrome
. Jarcho-Levin Syndrome
. Ellis-van Creveld Syndrome
. Campomelic Dysplasia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Jarcho-Levin Syndrome


Explanation

Jarcho-Levin syndrome (spondylocostal dysostosis) is characterized by severe congenital segmentation anomalies of the spine and ribs. The fused and missing ribs create a 'crab-like' thorax, frequently leading to fatal respiratory insufficiency.

Question 5970

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

Achondroplasia and Hypochondroplasia both result from mutations in the FGFR3 gene, but their clinical severities differ. In the spine, which of the following features is classically observed in Achondroplasia but is typically absent or much less pronounced in Hypochondroplasia?

. Interpedicular distance narrowing from L1 to L5
. Severe thoracolumbar kyphosis with apical wedging in infancy
. Generalized platyspondyly
. Odontoid hypoplasia
. Coronal clefts in the lumbar vertebrae

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Severe thoracolumbar kyphosis with apical wedging in infancy


Explanation

Both conditions feature narrowing of the interpedicular distance in the lumbar spine. However, the severe, characteristic thoracolumbar kyphosis seen in infants with Achondroplasia is typically absent or very mild in Hypochondroplasia.

Question 5971

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

An 8-month-old infant with achondroplasia presents with a progressive thoracolumbar kyphosis. The parents are concerned as the angulation has worsened since the child began sitting. Neurological examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

. Immediate posterior spinal fusion
. Application of a thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) for 23 hours a day
. Observation and avoidance of unsupported sitting
. Anterior and posterior spinal fusion
. Vertebral column resection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation and avoidance of unsupported sitting


Explanation

Thoracolumbar kyphosis in infants with achondroplasia is common and primarily positional due to hypotonia and a large head. Management involves avoiding unsupported sitting; up to 90% of these curves will resolve spontaneously as the child begins to walk and develop lumbar lordosis.

Question 5972

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 14-month-old male with achondroplasia presents with central sleep apnea, failure to thrive, and hyperreflexia of all four extremities. What is the most appropriate next step in evaluation?

. Observation as this is transient in achondroplastic toddlers
. Polysomnography and MRI of the cervicomedullary junction
. Prophylactic posterior cervical fusion of C1-C2
. Application of a hard cervical collar
. Initiation of CPAP without further neuroimaging

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Polysomnography and MRI of the cervicomedullary junction


Explanation

Central sleep apnea and hyperreflexia in an achondroplastic infant are red flags for foramen magnum stenosis causing cervicomedullary compression. Urgent MRI of the craniocervical junction is required to evaluate the need for suboccipital decompression.

Question 5973

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 10-year-old boy presents with a short webbed neck, low posterior hairline, and restricted cervical range of motion. Radiographs demonstrate congenital fusion of C3-C4 and C5-C6. Which of the following systemic screening tests is mandatory?

. Renal ultrasound to evaluate for genitourinary anomalies
. Genetic testing for a COMP mutation
. Urine screening for glycosaminoglycans
. Echocardiogram to rule out aortic root dilation
. DEXA scan to evaluate for osteopenia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Renal ultrasound to evaluate for genitourinary anomalies


Explanation

Klippel-Feil syndrome is characterized by congenital fusion of cervical vertebrae. Up to 30% of these patients have concomitant genitourinary abnormalities, making renal ultrasound a mandatory screening tool.

Question 5974

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A newborn exhibits a remarkably short trunk, a protuberant abdomen, and a 'crab-like' appearance of the ribs on chest radiographs due to extensive rib fusions and multiple hemivertebrae. A mutation in which of the following genes is most likely responsible?

. COL1A1
. DLL3
. FGFR3
. COMP
. SOX9

Correct Answer & Explanation

. DLL3


Explanation

The clinical picture describes spondylocostal dysostosis, which is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the Notch signaling pathway, most commonly DLL3. It presents with multiple segmentation defects of the spine and abnormal rib fusions.

Question 5975

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 9-month-old infant with achondroplasia presents for a routine orthopedic evaluation. Clinical examination reveals a flexible 35-degree thoracolumbar kyphosis. The neurologic examination is unremarkable, and the infant is meeting developmental milestones. What is the most appropriate initial management for this spinal deformity?

. Immediate posterior spinal fusion
. Observation and avoidance of unsupported sitting
. Application of a custom rigid extension brace
. Anterior release and posterior spinal fusion
. Prophylactic suboccipital decompression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation and avoidance of unsupported sitting


Explanation

Thoracolumbar kyphosis is common in infants with achondroplasia due to hypotonia and an abnormally large head. It is usually flexible and resolves spontaneously once the child develops truncal strength and begins walking, provided unsupported sitting is avoided.

Question 5976

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 3-year-old girl is evaluated for delayed milestones, coarse facial features, and hepatosplenomegaly. Lateral spine radiographs reveal platyspondyly with anterior inferior beaking of the lumbar vertebrae. Which of the following best describes the molecular pathogenesis of her underlying condition?

. Defect in type II collagen synthesis
. Deficiency of N-acetylgalactosamine-6-sulfatase
. Deficiency of alpha-L-iduronidase
. Mutation in the FGFR3 gene
. Mutation in the diastrophic dysplasia sulfate transporter

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deficiency of alpha-L-iduronidase


Explanation

The clinical presentation and anterior inferior vertebral beaking are classic for Hurler syndrome (MPS I), caused by a deficiency of alpha-L-iduronidase. This distinguishes it from Morquio syndrome (MPS IV), which classically features central anterior beaking.

Question 5977

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

An infant is born with a normal-length trunk and short extremities. Over the next few years, the phenotype dramatically evolves due to a severe progressive kyphoscoliosis, resulting in a short trunk with relatively long-appearing limbs. A distinctive tail-like appendage is noted over the sacrum. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia congenita
. Metatropic dysplasia
. Diastrophic dysplasia
. Kniest dysplasia
. Campomelic dysplasia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metatropic dysplasia


Explanation

Metatropic dysplasia is defined by a 'reversal of proportions' as the child ages; the initially normal trunk becomes severely shortened due to aggressive kyphoscoliosis. A coccygeal skin fold or tail-like appendage over the sacrum is a pathognomonic clinical feature.

Question 5978

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 9-year-old boy presents with severe leg pain, muscle weakness, and a waddling gait. Radiographs show bilateral symmetric cortical thickening of the femoral and tibial diaphyses, sparing the epiphyses.

What is the underlying genetic mutation associated with this disorder?

. COMP
. COL1A1
. FGFR3
. TGFB1
. RUNX2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. TGFB1


Explanation

Progressive Diaphyseal Dysplasia (Camurati-Engelmann disease) is characterized by symmetric diaphyseal cortical thickening. It is caused by an autosomal dominant mutation in the TGFB1 gene.

Question 5979

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 10-year-old girl complains of bilateral knee and hip pain after activity. Radiographs reveal delayed, irregular ossification of the capital femoral epiphyses and a double-layered appearance of the patellae on a lateral knee radiograph. Intelligence and facial features are normal. What gene mutation is most commonly responsible?

. COL2A1
. COMP
. MATN3
. FGFR3
. SLC26A2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. COMP


Explanation

Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED) presents with irregular epiphyses and classic 'double-layered' patellae, without spine involvement or cognitive deficits. It is most commonly caused by a mutation in the Cartilage Oligomeric Matrix Protein (COMP) gene.

Question 5980

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A newborn is noted to have rhizomelic shortening of the limbs, frontal bossing, and midface hypoplasia. Radiographs show decreasing interpedicular distances from the upper to the lower lumbar spine. The mutation responsible for this condition primarily affects which specific zone of the physis?

. Reserve zone
. Proliferative zone
. Hypertrophic zone
. Zone of provisional calcification
. Primary spongiosa

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proliferative zone


Explanation

Achondroplasia is caused by a gain-of-function mutation in FGFR3, which inhibits normal chondrocyte proliferation. This directly leads to a defect in the proliferative zone of the growth plate.