Question 5821
Topic: Pediatric HipCorrect Answer & Explanation
. Septic arthritis
Practice Set 292 of 334
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 4. Pediatrics. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Septic arthritis
Which of the following factors does NOT increase the risk of developmental dysplasia of the hip?
. Large for gestational age (LGA)
When performing the Ortolani maneuver, what type of sensation indicates a positive result?
. A palpable 'clunk' as the femoral head reduces into the acetabulum
A 1-year-old child presents with a persistent limp. On examination, the examiner notes that when the child stands on one leg, the pelvis drops on the unsupported side. This is indicative of what sign?
. Trendelenburg sign
Which of the following interventions is typically contraindicated in the management of DDH with a Pavlik harness?
. Forcing hip abduction beyond 60 degrees
A 4-month-old infant, previously managed with a Pavlik harness for DDH, is now noted to have a stable hip on clinical examination and an alpha angle of 65 degrees on ultrasound. What is the most appropriate next step?
. Begin weaning from the Pavlik harness over several weeks
When assessing an infant for DDH, a 'click' heard or felt during hip manipulation, without frank dislocation or reduction, is most likely due to what structure?
. Iliofemoral ligament
In the context of DDH screening, what is the current recommendation for selective screening using hip ultrasound?
. Infants with identified risk factors (e.g., breech, female first-born) should receive ultrasound.
. Cerebral palsy
A newborn presents with bilateral contractures of the elbows, knees, and hips, consistent with arthrogryposis multiplex congenita. What is the prevalence of DDH in this patient population compared to the general population?
. Significantly higher
A 10-month-old infant presents with a left-sided limp. Physical examination reveals limited hip abduction on the left and a positive Galeazzi sign on the left. Radiographs confirm a left hip dislocation. What is the most appropriate initial management approach for this patient?
. Closed reduction under anesthesia and hip spica casting
Which of the following radiographic findings is considered the earliest indicator of acetabular dysplasia in a child over 6 months of age?
. Increased acetabular index (angle)
What is the typical timeframe within which a positive Ortolani or Barlow sign should resolve spontaneously if DDH is not present?
. By 4-6 weeks of age
In a 3-year-old child with a dislocated hip due to DDH, what is the most common reason for failure of closed reduction?
. Interposition of the psoas tendon or inverted labrum
A 2-week-old female, born via spontaneous vaginal delivery, has an asymptomatic, stable hip on clinical exam. However, she was born breech. What is the most appropriate next step in her evaluation for DDH?
. Perform a hip ultrasound at 4-6 weeks of age.
Which of the following is considered a 'soft sign' of DDH, often necessitating further investigation, but not diagnostic on its own?
. Asymmetric thigh folds
What is the primary goal of early diagnosis and treatment of developmental dysplasia of the hip?
. To ensure normal development of the acetabulum and prevent future osteoarthritis.
In an infant with a 'clicky hip' where both Ortolani and Barlow tests are negative and hip abduction is full, what is the most appropriate recommendation?
. Reassurance and routine follow-up, as isolated clicks are usually benign
A 5-month-old infant has been in a Pavlik harness for 10 weeks for a dislocated hip. On follow-up, the hip remains dislocated and irreducible on clinical exam. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Perform a closed reduction under anesthesia followed by spica casting
. Type IIa-