Question 5081
Topic: Pediatric HipCorrect Answer & Explanation
. Greater than 50% maintenance of lateral pillar height
Practice Set 255 of 334
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 4. Pediatrics. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Greater than 50% maintenance of lateral pillar height
. Transfer of the entire anterior tibial tendon to the third cuneiform
A newborn is diagnosed with congenital fibular hemimelia. Which of the following associated anomalies is most commonly found in the ipsilateral limb?
. Absence of the medial rays of the foot
. Holt-Oram syndrome
. Closes centrally, then anteromedially, posteromedially, and finally laterally
. Proximal tibial valgus-derotation osteotomy
In a 7-year-old non-ambulatory child with spastic quadriplegic cerebral palsy (GMFCS Level V), routine radiographic surveillance reveals a Reimer's migration percentage of 45% in the right hip. There is no subchondral sclerosis or joint space narrowing. What is the most appropriate recommendation?
. Continued radiographic surveillance every 2 years
A 10-year-old girl is found to have a post-traumatic physeal bar of the distal femur. A scanogram shows a 3 cm leg length discrepancy, and an MRI maps the bar as centrally located, occupying 30% of the cross-sectional area of the physis. She is expected to have 4 years of remaining growth. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
. Contralateral distal femoral epiphysiodesis
. Type II
A 2-year-old boy with achondroplasia presents with a thoracolumbar kyphosis of 35 degrees. He has no neurologic deficits and has just started walking independently. What is the most appropriate management?
. Immediate posterior spinal fusion
A 13-year-old boy underwent in situ single-screw fixation for a stable right Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE) two years ago. He now complains of progressive right hip stiffness and worsening pain. Radiographs reveal global joint space narrowing to 1.5 mm, periarticular osteopenia, and no signs of avascular necrosis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Implant failure
. Proximal tibial valgus osteotomy
. Group C, with a poor prognosis regardless of treatment
An infant with idiopathic clubfoot is undergoing Ponseti serial casting. After successfully correcting the cavus, adductus, and varus deformities, the foot remains in 15 degrees of rigid equinus. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
. Perform a posteromedial soft tissue release
A 2-week-old infant with arthrogryposis multiplex congenita presents with rigid, bilaterally dislocated hips. What is the most appropriate initial management strategy for the hip dysplasia in this patient?
. Immediate application of a Pavlik harness
During the Ponseti method of serial casting for idiopathic clubfoot, the deformities must be corrected in a specific sequential order to avoid iatrogenic complications. Which deformity must be corrected first?
. Equinus
The Herring Lateral Pillar classification is used to determine the prognosis in Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. Which of the following radiographic parameters defines a Lateral Pillar Group C?
. > 50% maintenance of lateral pillar height on AP pelvis
A 12-year-old boy undergoes in-situ percutaneous pinning for a stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). During the procedure, the surgeon fails to recognize intra-articular pin penetration. What is the most likely long-term complication?
. Avascular necrosis
. Salter-Harris III on AP view, Salter-Harris II on lateral view
A 4-year-old boy presents with dynamic supination of the foot during the swing phase of gait. He was successfully treated for clubfoot as an infant using the Ponseti method. What is the treatment of choice for this specific relapse?
. Extensive posteromedial release