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Question 4161

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

An infant with achondroplasia presents with newly identified central sleep apnea, hyperreflexia, and clonus. What is the most critical next step in management?

. Observation and routine pediatric follow-up
. Polysomnography alone
. MRI of the craniocervical junction
. CT scan of the entire lumbar spine
. Casting for lower extremity deformity correction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MRI of the craniocervical junction


Explanation

Neurological signs in an infant with achondroplasia strongly suggest foramen magnum stenosis with cervicomedullary compression. An MRI of the craniocervical junction is critical to evaluate for urgent surgical decompression.

Question 4162

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A newborn presents with micromelic short stature, bilateral severe rigid clubfeet, "hitchhiker" thumbs, and swollen cauliflower ears. What is the genetic inheritance pattern and defective gene responsible for this condition?

. Autosomal dominant; COL1A1
. Autosomal recessive; SLC26A2
. Autosomal dominant; COMP
. X-linked recessive; PHEX
. Autosomal recessive; FGFR3

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Autosomal recessive; SLC26A2


Explanation

Diastrophic dysplasia is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the SLC26A2 (DTDST) gene, leading to defective sulfate transport and impaired cartilage sulfation. Clinical hallmarks include hitchhiker thumbs, severe clubfeet, and cauliflower ears.

Question 4163

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 5-year-old child presents with a waddling gait, short stature, and joint laxity, but has completely normal facial features. Radiographs show delayed epiphyseal ossification and platyspondyly with anterior tongue-like projections. What is the most likely defective gene?

. FGFR3
. COMP
. COL2A1
. RUNX2
. SOX9

Correct Answer & Explanation

. COMP


Explanation

Pseudoachondroplasia is caused by mutations in the Cartilage Oligomeric Matrix Protein (COMP) gene. Unlike achondroplasia, patients have a normal facies and normal birth length, presenting later in childhood with growth retardation and profound joint laxity.

Question 4164

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 10-year-old child presents with bilateral hip pain and a waddling gait. Radiographs reveal flattened, fragmented capital femoral epiphyses bilaterally, but normal spine morphology. Which of the following best differentiates this condition from bilateral Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?

. Elevated inflammatory markers
. Involvement of the vertebral bodies
. Positive family history with an autosomal dominant inheritance
. Association with blue sclerae
. Unilateral presentation initially

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Positive family history with an autosomal dominant inheritance


Explanation

Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED) mimics bilateral Legg-Calve-Perthes disease but is distinguished by symmetric bilateral involvement, an autosomal dominant inheritance, and normal spine morphology (which differentiates it from spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia).

Question 4165

Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 2-year-old child with multiple café-au-lait macules and axillary freckling presents with an anterolateral bow of the tibia. Which of the following statements regarding the orthopedic management of this tibial deformity is most accurate?
. Bracing is usually curative if initiated before the age of 3
. The deformity typically remodels spontaneously with skeletal growth
. Surgical treatment often requires excision of the hamartomatous tissue, bone grafting, and stable fixation
. Amputation is contraindicated in all cases due to phantom limb pain
. Intramedullary nailing is strictly contraindicated due to an open proximal physis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgical treatment often requires excision of the hamartomatous tissue, bone grafting, and stable fixation


Explanation

Anterolateral bowing of the tibia is highly associated with congenital pseudarthrosis of the tibia in Neurofibromatosis Type 1. Bracing is rarely curative, and surgical treatment requires aggressive resection of the pseudarthrosis, bone grafting, and rigid mechanical fixation.

Question 4166

Topic: 4. Pediatrics
According to the Sillence classification for Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI), which type is considered perinatally lethal due to profound skeletal fragility and respiratory failure?
. Type I
. Type II
. Type III
. Type IV
. Type V

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type II


Explanation

Type II Osteogenesis Imperfecta is the most severe form and is uniformly lethal in the perinatal period. Infants typically suffer from severe pulmonary hypoplasia, multiple in utero fractures, and an extremely soft, unossified skull.

Question 4167

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A young child presents with severe short limb dwarfism, prominent eyes, and a highly arched palate. Laboratory tests reveal asymptomatic hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia, with low levels of intact PTH. What is the pathogenesis of this condition?

. Activating mutation of the PTH/PTHrP receptor
. Inactivating mutation of the calcium-sensing receptor
. Occult parathyroid adenoma
. Ectopic PTHrP production from a hamartoma
. Gain-of-function mutation in FGF23

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Activating mutation of the PTH/PTHrP receptor


Explanation

Jansen metaphyseal chondrodysplasia is a rare autosomal dominant disorder caused by an activating mutation in the PTH1R gene (PTH/PTHrP receptor). This causes ligand-independent signaling, mimicking primary hyperparathyroidism with hypercalcemia despite suppressed PTH.

Question 4168

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 12-year-old with achondroplasia is undergoing bilateral lower extremity lengthening. Which of the following anatomic principles or complication risks must the surgeon consider unique to or highly prominent in achondroplastic patients?

. High risk of pseudarthrosis requiring early bone grafting
. Extreme joint laxity and risk of knee subluxation during lengthening
. Severe osteopenia leading to frequent hardware failure
. Rapid premature consolidation of the regenerate bone
. Lack of periosteum rendering distraction osteogenesis impossible

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extreme joint laxity and risk of knee subluxation during lengthening


Explanation

Patients with achondroplasia inherently have marked ligamentous laxity and disproportionate soft tissue tightness during limb lengthening. This places them at a significantly high risk for joint subluxations (especially the knee and hip) and contractures during distraction osteogenesis.

Question 4169

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 4-year-old boy with a known diagnosis of achondroplasia presents for evaluation. His parents are concerned about his short limbs. Genetic analysis confirms a gain-of-function mutation in the FGFR3 gene. What is the primary cellular mechanism by which this mutation leads to the characteristic skeletal phenotype?

. Stimulation of chondrocyte hypertrophy in the hypertrophic zone
. Inhibition of osteoclast activity in the primary spongiosa
. Inhibition of chondrocyte proliferation in the proliferative zone of the physis
. Premature mineralization in the zone of provisional calcification
. Defective osteoblast differentiation in intramembranous ossification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inhibition of chondrocyte proliferation in the proliferative zone of the physis


Explanation

Achondroplasia is caused by an activating (gain-of-function) mutation in FGFR3, which paradoxically inhibits chondrocyte proliferation. This primarily affects the proliferative zone of the physis, leading to diminished endochondral ossification and rhizomelic short stature.

Question 4170

Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 6-year-old child with Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) Type III presents with progressive anterolateral bowing of the bilateral femora and a history of multiple fractures. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate for long-term management of the femoral deformities?
. Application of a bilateral hinged external fixator
. Open reduction and internal fixation with rigid compression plates
. Corrective osteotomies stabilized by static intramedullary nails
. Corrective osteotomies stabilized by telescopic intramedullary rods
. Bilateral distal femoral anterior epiphysiodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Corrective osteotomies stabilized by telescopic intramedullary rods


Explanation

In growing children with severe OI, corrective osteotomies ('shish kebab' technique) combined with telescopic intramedullary rods (e.g., Fassier-Duval) are the gold standard. They stabilize the bone, correct deformity, and elongate with growth to prevent recurrent fractures beyond the tip of the rod.

Question 4171

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A newborn presents with severe short-limbed dwarfism, bilateral clubfeet, hitchhiker thumbs, and cystic swelling of the external ears (cauliflower ears). Which of the following genes is most likely mutated in this patient?

. COMP
. SLC26A2
. FGFR3
. COL2A1
. SOX9

Correct Answer & Explanation

. SLC26A2


Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for Diastrophic Dysplasia. It is caused by an autosomal recessive mutation in the SLC26A2 (DTDST) gene, which encodes a sulfate transporter, leading to defective sulfation of cartilage proteoglycans.

Question 4172

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 5-year-old girl is evaluated for short stature and a waddling gait. Clinical examination reveals normal facial features and intelligence. Radiographs demonstrate delayed epiphyseal ossification and irregular, fragmented epiphyses. Genetic testing is most likely to reveal a mutation in which of the following?

. COL1A1
. COL2A1
. FGFR3
. COL10A1
. Cartilage Oligomeric Matrix Protein (COMP)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cartilage Oligomeric Matrix Protein (COMP)


Explanation

Pseudoachondroplasia is characterized by short stature, delayed epiphyseal ossification, and joint laxity, but unlike achondroplasia, facial features and head circumference are normal. It is caused by mutations in the COMP gene.

Question 4173

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 6-year-old child with Morquio Syndrome (Mucopolysaccharidosis Type IV) presents with genu valgum and a barrel chest. A defect in which of the following enzymes is responsible for this condition?

. Alpha-L-iduronidase
. N-acetylgalactosamine-6-sulfatase
. Iduronate-2-sulfatase
. Arylsulfatase B
. Beta-glucuronidase

Correct Answer & Explanation

. N-acetylgalactosamine-6-sulfatase


Explanation

Morquio Syndrome (MPS IV) Type A is caused by a deficiency of N-acetylgalactosamine-6-sulfatase, leading to the accumulation of keratan sulfate. Unlike many other mucopolysaccharidoses, intelligence is typically normal.

Question 4174

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 3-year-old child presents with bowed legs, a waddling gait, and short stature. Radiographs show coxa vara and flared, irregular metaphyses. The spine and facial features are completely normal. Genetic testing reveals a mutation in COL10A1. What is the diagnosis?

. Achondroplasia
. Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia
. Kniest Dysplasia
. Schmid Metaphyseal Chondrodysplasia
. Jansen Metaphyseal Chondrodysplasia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Schmid Metaphyseal Chondrodysplasia


Explanation

Schmid Metaphyseal Chondrodysplasia is an autosomal dominant condition caused by mutations in the COL10A1 gene, which affects type X collagen in the hypertrophic zone of the physis. It presents with short limbs, coxa vara, and metaphyseal flaring with a normal spine.

Question 4175

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A newborn is evaluated for skeletal disproportion. Radiographs reveal unusually short, dumbbell-shaped femora, coronal clefts in the vertebral bodies, and platyspondyly. Clinically, the infant has a cleft palate and prominent joints. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Camptomelic Dysplasia
. Kniest Dysplasia
. Cleidocranial Dysplasia
. Metaphyseal Chondrodysplasia
. Diastrophic Dysplasia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Kniest Dysplasia


Explanation

Kniest Dysplasia is a Type II collagenopathy characterized clinically by prominent joints, cleft palate, and hearing loss. Radiographically, 'dumbbell-shaped' femora and coronal vertebral clefts are classic hallmark findings.

Question 4176

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A neonate is born with severe anterolateral bowing of the lower extremities, clubfeet, and ambiguous genitalia. Chromosomal analysis reveals a 46,XY karyotype despite female external genitalia. The infant shortly develops severe respiratory distress due to tracheomalacia. This condition is associated with a mutation in which gene?

. COMP
. COL2A1
. FGFR3
. SOX9
. SLC26A2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. SOX9


Explanation

Camptomelic Dysplasia is caused by mutations in the SOX9 gene. It is characterized by severe bowing of the tibiae and femora, fatal respiratory distress from tracheobronchomalacia, and XY sex reversal (phenotypic females with an XY karyotype).

Question 4177

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 5-year-old child exhibits profound short stature, prominent eyes, and micrognathia. Laboratory tests reveal marked hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia, with low-normal levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH). Radiographs demonstrate severe metaphyseal irregularity and osteopenia. A mutation in which of the following is most likely?

. PTH/PTHrP receptor (PTH1R)
. PHEX gene
. GNAS1 gene
. FGF23 protein
. Calcium-sensing receptor (CaSR)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. PTH/PTHrP receptor (PTH1R)


Explanation

Jansen Metaphyseal Chondrodysplasia is caused by a ligand-independent, activating mutation in the PTH1R gene. This leads to unremitting signaling that mimics primary hyperparathyroidism (hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia) despite low actual PTH levels, alongside severe metaphyseal dysplasia.

Question 4178

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

An 8-year-old child is evaluated for joint pain and a waddling gait. Radiographs demonstrate small, irregular epiphyses with a normal spine. A lateral knee radiograph reveals a pathognomonic 'double-layer' patella. A mutation in which gene is most likely responsible?

. COMP
. SLC26A2
. COL1A1
. FGFR3
. SOX9

Correct Answer & Explanation

. COMP


Explanation

The 'double-layer' patella is pathognomonic for Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED). The most common mutation associated with the autosomal dominant form of MED is the COMP gene.

Question 4179

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 4-year-old boy presents with short limbs and a waddling gait but normal facial features. Radiographs show delayed epiphyseal ossification, irregular flared metaphyses, and a normal skull. What is the inheritance pattern and associated gene for this condition?

. Autosomal dominant, FGFR3
. Autosomal dominant, COMP
. Autosomal recessive, SLC26A2
. X-linked recessive, DMD
. Autosomal recessive, COL2A1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Autosomal dominant, COMP


Explanation

The patient has pseudoachondroplasia, distinguished from achondroplasia by normal facies. It is an autosomal dominant condition caused by mutations in the COMP (Cartilage Oligomeric Matrix Protein) gene.

Question 4180

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A newborn is diagnosed with Ellis-van Creveld syndrome (Chondroectodermal Dysplasia). In addition to short limbs, polydactyly, and an atrial septal defect, which of the following lower extremity deformities is most likely to develop as the child grows?

. Severe genu varum
. Severe genu valgum
. Anterolateral tibial bowing
. Posteromedial tibial bowing
. Coxa vara

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Severe genu valgum


Explanation

Ellis-van Creveld syndrome is characterized by a defect in the lateral aspect of the proximal tibial physis. This depression of the lateral tibial plateau predictably leads to severe progressive genu valgum.