This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 4. Pediatrics. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 4161
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
An infant with achondroplasia presents with newly identified central sleep apnea, hyperreflexia, and clonus. What is the most critical next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. MRI of the craniocervical junction
Explanation
Neurological signs in an infant with achondroplasia strongly suggest foramen magnum stenosis with cervicomedullary compression. An MRI of the craniocervical junction is critical to evaluate for urgent surgical decompression.
Question 4162
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A newborn presents with micromelic short stature, bilateral severe rigid clubfeet, "hitchhiker" thumbs, and swollen cauliflower ears. What is the genetic inheritance pattern and defective gene responsible for this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Autosomal recessive; SLC26A2
Explanation
Diastrophic dysplasia is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations in the SLC26A2 (DTDST) gene, leading to defective sulfate transport and impaired cartilage sulfation. Clinical hallmarks include hitchhiker thumbs, severe clubfeet, and cauliflower ears.
Question 4163
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 5-year-old child presents with a waddling gait, short stature, and joint laxity, but has completely normal facial features. Radiographs show delayed epiphyseal ossification and platyspondyly with anterior tongue-like projections. What is the most likely defective gene?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. COMP
Explanation
Pseudoachondroplasia is caused by mutations in the Cartilage Oligomeric Matrix Protein (COMP) gene. Unlike achondroplasia, patients have a normal facies and normal birth length, presenting later in childhood with growth retardation and profound joint laxity.
Question 4164
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 10-year-old child presents with bilateral hip pain and a waddling gait. Radiographs reveal flattened, fragmented capital femoral epiphyses bilaterally, but normal spine morphology. Which of the following best differentiates this condition from bilateral Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Positive family history with an autosomal dominant inheritance
Explanation
Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED) mimics bilateral Legg-Calve-Perthes disease but is distinguished by symmetric bilateral involvement, an autosomal dominant inheritance, and normal spine morphology (which differentiates it from spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia).
Question 4165
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 2-year-old child with multiple café-au-lait macules and axillary freckling presents with an anterolateral bow of the tibia. Which of the following statements regarding the orthopedic management of this tibial deformity is most accurate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Surgical treatment often requires excision of the hamartomatous tissue, bone grafting, and stable fixation
Explanation
Anterolateral bowing of the tibia is highly associated with congenital pseudarthrosis of the tibia in Neurofibromatosis Type 1. Bracing is rarely curative, and surgical treatment requires aggressive resection of the pseudarthrosis, bone grafting, and rigid mechanical fixation.
Question 4166
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
According to the Sillence classification for Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI), which type is considered perinatally lethal due to profound skeletal fragility and respiratory failure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type II
Explanation
Type II Osteogenesis Imperfecta is the most severe form and is uniformly lethal in the perinatal period. Infants typically suffer from severe pulmonary hypoplasia, multiple in utero fractures, and an extremely soft, unossified skull.
Question 4167
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A young child presents with severe short limb dwarfism, prominent eyes, and a highly arched palate. Laboratory tests reveal asymptomatic hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia, with low levels of intact PTH. What is the pathogenesis of this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Activating mutation of the PTH/PTHrP receptor
Explanation
Jansen metaphyseal chondrodysplasia is a rare autosomal dominant disorder caused by an activating mutation in the PTH1R gene (PTH/PTHrP receptor). This causes ligand-independent signaling, mimicking primary hyperparathyroidism with hypercalcemia despite suppressed PTH.
Question 4168
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 12-year-old with achondroplasia is undergoing bilateral lower extremity lengthening. Which of the following anatomic principles or complication risks must the surgeon consider unique to or highly prominent in achondroplastic patients?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extreme joint laxity and risk of knee subluxation during lengthening
Explanation
Patients with achondroplasia inherently have marked ligamentous laxity and disproportionate soft tissue tightness during limb lengthening. This places them at a significantly high risk for joint subluxations (especially the knee and hip) and contractures during distraction osteogenesis.
Question 4169
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 4-year-old boy with a known diagnosis of achondroplasia presents for evaluation. His parents are concerned about his short limbs. Genetic analysis confirms a gain-of-function mutation in the FGFR3 gene. What is the primary cellular mechanism by which this mutation leads to the characteristic skeletal phenotype?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inhibition of chondrocyte proliferation in the proliferative zone of the physis
Explanation
Achondroplasia is caused by an activating (gain-of-function) mutation in FGFR3, which paradoxically inhibits chondrocyte proliferation. This primarily affects the proliferative zone of the physis, leading to diminished endochondral ossification and rhizomelic short stature.
Question 4170
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 6-year-old child with Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) Type III presents with progressive anterolateral bowing of the bilateral femora and a history of multiple fractures. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate for long-term management of the femoral deformities?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Corrective osteotomies stabilized by telescopic intramedullary rods
Explanation
In growing children with severe OI, corrective osteotomies ('shish kebab' technique) combined with telescopic intramedullary rods (e.g., Fassier-Duval) are the gold standard. They stabilize the bone, correct deformity, and elongate with growth to prevent recurrent fractures beyond the tip of the rod.
Question 4171
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A newborn presents with severe short-limbed dwarfism, bilateral clubfeet, hitchhiker thumbs, and cystic swelling of the external ears (cauliflower ears). Which of the following genes is most likely mutated in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. SLC26A2
Explanation
The clinical presentation is classic for Diastrophic Dysplasia. It is caused by an autosomal recessive mutation in the SLC26A2 (DTDST) gene, which encodes a sulfate transporter, leading to defective sulfation of cartilage proteoglycans.
Question 4172
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 5-year-old girl is evaluated for short stature and a waddling gait. Clinical examination reveals normal facial features and intelligence. Radiographs demonstrate delayed epiphyseal ossification and irregular, fragmented epiphyses. Genetic testing is most likely to reveal a mutation in which of the following?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cartilage Oligomeric Matrix Protein (COMP)
Explanation
Pseudoachondroplasia is characterized by short stature, delayed epiphyseal ossification, and joint laxity, but unlike achondroplasia, facial features and head circumference are normal. It is caused by mutations in the COMP gene.
Question 4173
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 6-year-old child with Morquio Syndrome (Mucopolysaccharidosis Type IV) presents with genu valgum and a barrel chest. A defect in which of the following enzymes is responsible for this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. N-acetylgalactosamine-6-sulfatase
Explanation
Morquio Syndrome (MPS IV) Type A is caused by a deficiency of N-acetylgalactosamine-6-sulfatase, leading to the accumulation of keratan sulfate. Unlike many other mucopolysaccharidoses, intelligence is typically normal.
Question 4174
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 3-year-old child presents with bowed legs, a waddling gait, and short stature. Radiographs show coxa vara and flared, irregular metaphyses. The spine and facial features are completely normal. Genetic testing reveals a mutation in COL10A1. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Schmid Metaphyseal Chondrodysplasia
Explanation
Schmid Metaphyseal Chondrodysplasia is an autosomal dominant condition caused by mutations in the COL10A1 gene, which affects type X collagen in the hypertrophic zone of the physis. It presents with short limbs, coxa vara, and metaphyseal flaring with a normal spine.
Question 4175
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A newborn is evaluated for skeletal disproportion. Radiographs reveal unusually short, dumbbell-shaped femora, coronal clefts in the vertebral bodies, and platyspondyly. Clinically, the infant has a cleft palate and prominent joints. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Kniest Dysplasia
Explanation
Kniest Dysplasia is a Type II collagenopathy characterized clinically by prominent joints, cleft palate, and hearing loss. Radiographically, 'dumbbell-shaped' femora and coronal vertebral clefts are classic hallmark findings.
Question 4176
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A neonate is born with severe anterolateral bowing of the lower extremities, clubfeet, and ambiguous genitalia. Chromosomal analysis reveals a 46,XY karyotype despite female external genitalia. The infant shortly develops severe respiratory distress due to tracheomalacia. This condition is associated with a mutation in which gene?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. SOX9
Explanation
Camptomelic Dysplasia is caused by mutations in the SOX9 gene. It is characterized by severe bowing of the tibiae and femora, fatal respiratory distress from tracheobronchomalacia, and XY sex reversal (phenotypic females with an XY karyotype).
Question 4177
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 5-year-old child exhibits profound short stature, prominent eyes, and micrognathia. Laboratory tests reveal marked hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia, with low-normal levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH). Radiographs demonstrate severe metaphyseal irregularity and osteopenia. A mutation in which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. PTH/PTHrP receptor (PTH1R)
Explanation
Jansen Metaphyseal Chondrodysplasia is caused by a ligand-independent, activating mutation in the PTH1R gene. This leads to unremitting signaling that mimics primary hyperparathyroidism (hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia) despite low actual PTH levels, alongside severe metaphyseal dysplasia.
Question 4178
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
An 8-year-old child is evaluated for joint pain and a waddling gait. Radiographs demonstrate small, irregular epiphyses with a normal spine. A lateral knee radiograph reveals a pathognomonic 'double-layer' patella. A mutation in which gene is most likely responsible?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. COMP
Explanation
The 'double-layer' patella is pathognomonic for Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED). The most common mutation associated with the autosomal dominant form of MED is the COMP gene.
Question 4179
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 4-year-old boy presents with short limbs and a waddling gait but normal facial features. Radiographs show delayed epiphyseal ossification, irregular flared metaphyses, and a normal skull. What is the inheritance pattern and associated gene for this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Autosomal dominant, COMP
Explanation
The patient has pseudoachondroplasia, distinguished from achondroplasia by normal facies. It is an autosomal dominant condition caused by mutations in the COMP (Cartilage Oligomeric Matrix Protein) gene.
Question 4180
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A newborn is diagnosed with Ellis-van Creveld syndrome (Chondroectodermal Dysplasia). In addition to short limbs, polydactyly, and an atrial septal defect, which of the following lower extremity deformities is most likely to develop as the child grows?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Severe genu valgum
Explanation
Ellis-van Creveld syndrome is characterized by a defect in the lateral aspect of the proximal tibial physis. This depression of the lateral tibial plateau predictably leads to severe progressive genu valgum.
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