This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 4. Pediatrics. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3941
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 10-year-old patient with achondroplasia develops progressive symptomatic genu varum. What is the primary anatomical driver of this deformity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Relative overgrowth of the fibula compared to the tibia
Explanation
Genu varum in achondroplasia is primarily caused by asymmetric growth, specifically the overgrowth of the fibula relative to the shorter tibia. This creates a deforming force that bows the tibia into varus.
Question 3942
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A newborn is evaluated for multiple musculoskeletal anomalies. Examination reveals severe shortening of the limbs, bilateral clubfeet, "hitchhiker" thumbs, and swelling of the external ears (cauliflower ears). A mutation in which of the following genes is responsible for this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. SLC26A2 (DTDST)
Explanation
Diastrophic dysplasia is characterized by short stature, hitchhiker thumbs, cauliflower ears, and severe clubfeet. It is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a mutation in the SLC26A2 sulfate transporter gene.
Question 3943
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 5-year-old child presents with disproportionate short stature characterized by a short trunk and barrel chest. Radiographs reveal platyspondyly, delayed ossification of the femoral heads, and severe coxa vara. Visual and hearing assessments show myopia and sensorineural hearing loss. The primary defect involves which of the following collagens?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type II collagen
Explanation
Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia congenita (SEDC) affects the spine and epiphyses, causing a short-trunk dwarfism with visual and hearing impairments. It is caused by mutations in the COL2A1 gene, which encodes Type II collagen.
Question 3944
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 7-year-old child presents with short-limb dwarfism, joint laxity, and early-onset osteoarthritis. Unlike achondroplasia, the patient's facial features and head circumference are completely normal. Radiographs show delayed epiphyseal ossification and irregular metaphyses. A mutation in the COMP (Cartilage Oligomeric Matrix Protein) gene is identified. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pseudoachondroplasia
Explanation
Pseudoachondroplasia presents with severe short-limb dwarfism but normal facies and normal intelligence, caused by a COMP gene mutation. Multiple epiphyseal dysplasia (MED) can also have COMP mutations but typically lacks the severe short-limb dwarfism seen here.
Question 3945
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 6-year-old boy presents with bilateral hip pain and a waddling gait. Radiographs reveal bilateral, symmetric fragmentation and flattening of the femoral capital epiphyses, with normal acetabuli and normal spine radiographs. His father had similar early-onset arthritis. Which of the following best differentiates this condition from Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Symmetric, bilateral involvement and autosomal dominant inheritance favor MED
Explanation
Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED) usually presents with symmetric, bilateral epiphyseal changes and has an autosomal dominant inheritance. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is predominantly unilateral and lacks a strong inherited pattern.
Question 3946
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 6-month-old infant with achondroplasia presents with hypotonia, central apnea during sleep, and hyperreflexia. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. MRI of the cervical spine and craniocervical junction
Explanation
Infants with achondroplasia are at high risk for foramen magnum stenosis, which can cause cervicomedullary compression leading to central apnea, hypotonia, and sudden death. MRI of the craniocervical junction is the diagnostic test of choice to evaluate for critical stenosis prior to surgical decompression.
Question 3947
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A newborn presents with short stature, severe rigid clubfeet, 'hitchhiker' thumbs, and cystic swelling of the pinnae (cauliflower ears). Which of the following gene mutations is most likely responsible for this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. SLC26A2 (DTDST)
Explanation
Diastrophic dysplasia is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by a mutation in the SLC26A2 (DTDST) gene, which affects a sulfate transporter. It is characterized by hitchhiker thumbs, rigid equinovarus foot deformities, and auricular cysts.
Question 3948
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
Achondroplasia is characterized by a disproportionate short stature. Which of the following accurately describes the primary genetic and cellular etiology of this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. An activating mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) gene inhibiting the proliferative zone
Explanation
Achondroplasia is caused by a gain-of-function mutation in the FGFR3 gene. This overactivity abnormally inhibits chondrocyte proliferation within the proliferative zone of the physis.
Question 3949
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A newborn is evaluated for skeletal dysplasia. Examination reveals severe micromelia, "hitchhiker" thumbs, clubfeet, and cystic swelling of the pinnae (cauliflower ear). What is the underlying genetic defect?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. SLC26A2 (DTDST)
Explanation
Diastrophic dysplasia presents with hitchhiker thumbs, severe clubfeet, and cauliflower ears. It is an autosomal recessive condition caused by a mutation in the sulfate transporter gene (SLC26A2/DTDST).
Question 3950
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 6-year-old child presents with disproportionate short stature, normal craniofacial features, significant ligamentous laxity, and early-onset osteoarthritis of the hips. Radiographs show delayed epiphyseal ossification and platyspondyly with anterior beaking. A defect in which of the following genes is the most likely cause?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. COMP
Explanation
Pseudoachondroplasia is caused by mutations in the Cartilage Oligomeric Matrix Protein (COMP) gene. It classically presents with normal facies (unlike achondroplasia), severe early osteoarthritis, and ligamentous laxity.
Question 3951
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
Which of the following describes the underlying pathophysiology of achondroplasia at the level of the physis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inhibition of chondrocyte proliferation in the proliferative zone
Explanation
Achondroplasia is caused by a gain-of-function mutation in FGFR3, which leads to the constitutional inhibition of chondrocyte proliferation in the proliferative zone of the physis.
Question 3952
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
An 18-month-old child presents with an acute monoarticular effusion of the knee, fever, and refusal to bear weight. Gram stain of the synovial aspirate is negative. Which of the following is the most sensitive method to isolate Kingella kingae from this patient's synovial fluid?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inoculation into aerobic blood culture vials
Explanation
Kingella kingae is a fastidious organism responsible for many pediatric joint infections. Its isolation is significantly improved by inoculating synovial fluid directly into aerobic blood culture vials (BACTEC).
Question 3953
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
An 8-month-old male with achondroplasia presents for routine follow-up. Radiographs demonstrate a 30-degree thoracolumbar kyphosis. Neurologic exam is normal. What is the most appropriate management of the spinal deformity?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Observation and reassurance
Explanation
Thoracolumbar kyphosis is common in infants with achondroplasia due to hypotonia. It typically resolves spontaneously once the child begins to walk independently, so observation is the initial standard of care.
Question 3954
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 3-year-old child presents with short stature, ligamentous laxity, and a waddling gait. He had a normal appearance at birth and has a normal facial appearance. Radiographs show fragmented epiphyses. A mutation in the COMP gene is confirmed. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pseudoachondroplasia
Explanation
Pseudoachondroplasia is caused by a mutation in the COMP gene. Unlike achondroplasia, children are normal at birth, lack facial involvement, and exhibit marked joint laxity.
Question 3955
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 48-year-old female with a history of Roux-en-Y gastric bypass presents with diffuse bone pain, muscle weakness, and a waddling gait. Radiographs demonstrate the findings shown in the provided image.
Which of the following best describes the primary underlying histologic pathogenesis of this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Failure of osteoid mineralization with widened osteoid seams
Explanation
Osteomalacia is characterized by impaired mineralization of the bone matrix, leading to wide, unmineralized osteoid seams. The radiographic presence of pseudofractures (Looser zones) is a pathognomonic finding in advanced cases.
Question 3956
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 12-month-old male with achondroplasia is brought to the clinic by his parents due to a noticeable "hump" in his lower back. Physical examination reveals a flexible thoracolumbar kyphosis that corrects when the child is suspended prone. Neurological examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Observation and reassurance
Explanation
Thoracolumbar kyphosis is common in infants with achondroplasia and typically resolves spontaneously as the child develops truncal muscle tone and begins to walk. Bracing or surgery is strictly reserved for progressive, rigid deformities or those associated with neurological compromise.
Question 3957
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 5-year-old child presents with disproportionate short stature, a waddling gait, and profound joint laxity. Unlike classic achondroplasia, the child has completely normal facial features and intelligence. Radiographs show delayed epiphyseal ossification and irregular, fragmented metaphyses. A mutation in which of the following genes is most likely responsible?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. COMP
Explanation
Pseudoachondroplasia is an autosomal dominant skeletal dysplasia caused by mutations in the Cartilage Oligomeric Matrix Protein (COMP) gene. It is clinically distinguished from achondroplasia by the presence of normal craniofacial features and the absence of clinical manifestations at birth.
Question 3958
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
A 2-year-old child presents with a low-grade fever, limp, and refusal to bear weight on the right leg. Inflammatory markers are only mildly elevated. A knee aspirate yields purulent synovial fluid, but standard Gram stain is negative. Which of the following fastidious pathogens is highly suspected and best identified using nucleic acid amplification testing (PCR)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Kingella kingae
Explanation
Kingella kingae is a leading cause of osteoarticular infections in children aged 6 months to 4 years. It is a fastidious organism that is notoriously difficult to culture on standard solid media, making PCR or inoculation into liquid blood culture vials the diagnostic methods of choice.
Question 3959
Topic: 4. Pediatrics
Which of the following gene mutations is responsible for Achondroplasia, resulting in a gain-of-function that inhibits chondrocyte proliferation at the physis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. FGFR3
Explanation
Achondroplasia is caused by an activating (gain-of-function) mutation in the FGFR3 gene. This mutation over-inhibits chondrocyte proliferation in the proliferative zone of the growth plate, leading to rhizomelic dwarfism.
Question 3960
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 2-week-old neonate presents with asymmetric hip creases, fever, and pseudoparalysis of the right lower extremity. Ultrasound confirms a large hip effusion, and emergent surgical drainage is performed. The clinical image below demonstrates severe sequelae of a missed diagnosis in a similar patient.
What is the most devastating long-term complication of delayed diagnosis of neonatal septic arthritis of the hip?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Complete avascular destruction of the femoral head and neck with hip subluxation
Explanation
Delay in treating neonatal septic arthritis of the hip results in catastrophic destruction of the cartilaginous femoral head and neck due to infection and increased intra-articular pressure compromising the vascular supply. This results in the classic Choi type IV sequelae (destruction of head and neck).
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