This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 4. Pediatrics. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3701
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 22-year-old collegiate athlete presents with chronic anterior groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. A Dunn view radiograph of the hip demonstrates an alpha angle of 65 degrees. This radiographic finding is most consistent with which of the following pathomorphologies?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement
Explanation
An alpha angle greater than 50-55 degrees on a lateral or Dunn view radiograph indicates decreased head-neck offset, which is characteristic of Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement. This pathomorphology causes shear stresses on the anterosuperior acetabular cartilage and labrum during flexion.
Question 3702
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 25-year-old professional hockey player presents with gradual onset of anterior hip pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs reveal an alpha angle of 68 degrees and a prominent bump at the anterolateral femoral head-neck junction. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement
Explanation
An elevated alpha angle (>50-55 degrees) and a bump at the head-neck junction (pistol grip deformity) are diagnostic of Cam-type FAI. This is commonly seen in young, active males.
Question 3703
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 6-week-old female is being treated with a Pavlik harness for developmental dysplasia of the hip. After 2 weeks, her parents note that she is no longer actively kicking or extending the knee on the treated side. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Remove the harness immediately and observe for neurological recovery
Explanation
Decreased active knee extension in a Pavlik harness indicates a femoral nerve palsy, typically caused by excessive hip flexion. The harness must be removed to prevent permanent nerve damage, and the palsy usually resolves with observation.
Question 3704
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 35-year-old woman with a history of untreated developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is planned for a THA. Preoperative planning reveals a Crowe Type IV dysplasia. Which of the following surgical techniques is most likely required to successfully reconstruct this hip and avoid sciatic nerve palsy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subtrochanteric shortening osteotomy
Explanation
Crowe Type IV DDH features a high dislocation of the femoral head. Bringing the hip down to the true acetabulum often requires a subtrochanteric shortening osteotomy to safely reduce the joint and prevent stretching the sciatic nerve.
Question 3705
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 12-year-old boy with hypothyroidism and a BMI of 35 presents with an unstable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) of the left hip. Radiographs show a moderate slip. Which of the following factors is the strongest indication for prophylactic in situ pinning of the contralateral right hip?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The presence of an underlying endocrinopathy
Explanation
Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip is strongly recommended in patients with SCFE who have an underlying endocrinopathy, such as hypothyroidism or renal osteodystrophy. These conditions drastically increase the risk of developing a bilateral slip.
Question 3706
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 12-year-old boy with a BMI in the 98th percentile is diagnosed with a severe, slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) of the left hip. Radiographs of the right hip are normal. According to current evidence, which of the following is the strongest indication for prophylactic in situ pinning of his contralateral asymptomatic right hip?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Open triradiate cartilages
Explanation
The status of the triradiate cartilage is a primary indicator of skeletal maturity and the risk of a contralateral slip. Open triradiate cartilages indicate significant remaining growth, making it the strongest indication for prophylactic contralateral pinning in SCFE.
Question 3707
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 6-week-old female infant is treated with a Pavlik harness for developmental dysplasia of the hip. At the 3-week follow-up, ultrasound shows the hip remains dislocated. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Discontinue Pavlik harness and proceed to closed reduction and spica casting
Explanation
Prolonged use of a Pavlik harness in a persistently dislocated hip can lead to Pavlik harness disease and AVN. If unreduced after 3 to 4 weeks, it should be abandoned in favor of closed reduction and spica casting.
Question 3708
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 13-year-old obese boy presents with a mild slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) of the left hip. When is prophylactic pinning of the contralateral, asymptomatic hip most strongly indicated?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. In patients with an underlying endocrinopathy or metabolic bone disease
Explanation
Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip is strongly recommended in patients with underlying endocrinopathies (e.g., hypothyroidism) or metabolic bone diseases due to an extremely high risk of bilateral involvement.
Question 3709
Topic: Pediatric Hip
Which of the following is considered a 'head-at-risk' sign in Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Gage sign (a V-shaped radiolucency in the lateral portion of the epiphysis)
Explanation
Catterall's 'head-at-risk' signs indicate a poor prognosis and include Gage's sign, lateral subluxation of the femoral head, calcification lateral to the epiphysis, and a horizontal growth plate.
Question 3710
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 45-year-old woman with a history of bilateral developmental dysplasia of the hip (Crowe type IV) is undergoing THA. Preoperative planning indicates the native femoral head is migrated 5 centimeters proximally. Which of the following surgical strategies is most appropriate to restore normal biomechanics while minimizing complications?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Placement of the acetabular component in the true paleopelvis combined with a subtrochanteric shortening osteotomy
Explanation
In Crowe IV DDH, the acetabular component should be placed in the true paleopelvis to restore the anatomical center of rotation. A subtrochanteric shortening osteotomy is typically required to allow joint reduction without causing sciatic nerve stretch injury.
Question 3711
Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine
An 8-year-old boy presents with a displaced extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture. The hand is pink but the radial pulse is absent before and after closed reduction and percutaneous pinning. The hand remains warm and well-perfused. What is the most appropriate next step?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Observation and admission for neurovascular monitoring
Explanation
In a pink, pulseless hand following a well-reduced and pinned supracondylar humerus fracture, collateral circulation is adequate to perfuse the hand. The standard of care is close observation and hospital admission rather than immediate vascular exploration.
Question 3712
Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine
A
14-year-old girl is evaluated for scoliosis. Radiographs reveal a right thoracic curve of 42 degrees. Her Risser stage is 0 and she is premenarchal. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Bracing is indicated for skeletally immature patients (Risser 0-2) with adolescent idiopathic scoliosis who have a curve between 25 and 45 degrees. A TLSO brace worn 18-23 hours a day significantly decreases the risk of curve progression to the surgical threshold.
Question 3713
Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine
A 12-year-old premenarchal female presents with a right thoracic curve measuring 48 degrees on a standing PA radiograph. She is Risser 0 and has a Sanders skeletal maturity stage of 2. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior spinal fusion
Explanation
Posterior spinal fusion is indicated for adolescent idiopathic scoliosis curves greater than 45-50 degrees. Highly immature patients (Risser 0, premenarchal) with curves of this magnitude have a near 100% risk of progression and require surgical intervention.
Question 3714
Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine
A 12-year-old girl is diagnosed with adolescent idiopathic scoliosis. She is premenarcheal with a Risser stage of 0. Standing radiographs reveal a right thoracic curve of 35 degrees. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Bracing is indicated for skeletally immature patients (Risser 0-2) with curves between 25 and 45 degrees. A full-time rigid TLSO significantly decreases the risk of curve progression to the surgical threshold.
Question 3715
Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine
A 13-year-old premenarchal girl (Risser 0) is diagnosed with adolescent idiopathic scoliosis. Her right thoracic curve measures 34 degrees. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) bracing 18 hours per day
Explanation
Bracing is indicated for skeletally immature patients (Risser 0-2) with a curve between 25 and 45 degrees. A dose-response relationship exists, and wearing a TLSO for at least 18 hours daily significantly decreases the risk of curve progression to the surgical threshold.
Question 3716
Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine
A 13-year-old premenarcheal female presents with a right thoracic prominence. Radiographs reveal an adolescent idiopathic scoliosis (AIS) curve of 32 degrees. Her Risser stage is 1. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) bracing
Explanation
Bracing is indicated for patients with Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis who are skeletally immature (Risser 0-2, premenarcheal) with a curve magnitude between 25 and 45 degrees. It significantly decreases the risk of curve progression to the surgical threshold.
Question 3717
Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine
A 14-year-old girl is diagnosed with Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis. Upright radiographs demonstrate a main thoracic curve of 55 degrees and a lumbar curve of 35 degrees. On lateral bending films, the thoracic curve corrects to 40 degrees, and the lumbar curve corrects to 30 degrees. According to the Lenke classification system, what type of curve pattern does she have?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lenke Type 3
Explanation
This is a Lenke Type 3 (Double Major) curve. The main thoracic curve is structural (>25 degrees on bending), and the lumbar curve is also structural (fails to correct to <25 degrees on side bending).
Question 3718
Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine
In the surgical planning for Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis using the Lenke classification, which curve type is defined specifically as a 'Double Major' curve?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lenke 3
Explanation
In the Lenke classification system, Lenke 3 is defined as a Double Major curve. This indicates both the Main Thoracic and Lumbar/Thoracolumbar curves are structural, but the Main Thoracic curve is larger.
Question 3719
Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine
In the Lenke classification of Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis, a structural curve is determined by side-bending radiographs. Which of the following defines a structural proximal thoracic curve?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cobb angle > 25 degrees
Explanation
In the Lenke classification for adolescent idiopathic scoliosis, a minor curve is considered structural if the Cobb angle remains 25 degrees or greater on side-bending radiographs. Additionally, regional kyphosis of 20 degrees or more also defines a structural curve.
Question 3720
Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine
A 14-year-old female with adolescent idiopathic scoliosis (AIS) has a standing PA radiograph demonstrating a main thoracic curve of 55 degrees and a lumbar curve of 35 degrees. On supine side-bending radiographs, the lumbar curve corrects to 15 degrees. What is her Lenke curve type, and what is the standard surgical strategy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lenke 1 (Selective thoracic fusion)
Explanation
This is a Lenke 1 (Main Thoracic) curve pattern because the compensatory lumbar curve is non-structural (corrects to less than 25 degrees on side-bending). The standard surgical approach is a selective thoracic fusion, sparing the lumbar spine to preserve motion.
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