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Question 2921

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 3-week-old female infant is evaluated for a suspected hip abnormality. Examination reveals a palpable clunk when her hips are abducted with anteriorly directed pressure on the greater trochanter. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Pavlik harness
. Observation and repeat examination in 3 weeks
. Rigid abduction orthosis
. Closed reduction and spica cast
. Hip ultrasound

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pavlik harness


Explanation

The palpable clunk on abduction describes a positive Ortolani test, indicating a dislocated but reducible hip. Immediate treatment with a Pavlik harness is the gold standard for reducible DDH in infants younger than 6 months.

Question 2922

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 7-month-old infant is referred for evaluation of a developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) that was missed at birth. Ultrasound confirms a completely dislocated right hip. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Pavlik harness application
. Closed reduction and spica casting
. Open reduction via an anterior approach
. Femoral shortening osteotomy
. Observation until walking age

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pavlik harness application


Explanation

The Pavlik harness is most effective in infants under 6 months of age. For an infant 6 to 18 months old, closed reduction and spica casting is the preferred initial treatment for DDH.

Question 2923

Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine

A 6-year-old boy sustains a completely displaced supracondylar humerus fracture. Upon arrival, his hand is pink but the radial pulse is absent. Following closed reduction and percutaneous pinning, the hand remains pink but the pulse is still not palpable. What is the next best step in management?

. Immediate open exploration of the brachial artery
. Perform a vascular bypass graft
. Remove the pins and hyperflex the elbow
. Admit for observation with the arm slightly elevated
. Perform an immediate forearm fasciotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate open exploration of the brachial artery


Explanation

In a "pink, pulseless" hand after anatomical reduction and pinning of a supracondylar humerus fracture, observation is recommended as collateral circulation is adequate. Routine exploration is not indicated unless the hand becomes cool and pale.

Question 2924

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 3-year-old child is found to have congenital scoliosis due to a fully segmented hemivertebra at T8. Which of the following imaging modalities is most essential to evaluate for the most common associated non-spinal anomalies?

. Brain MRI
. Echocardiogram and renal ultrasound
. Pelvic radiograph
. CT scan of the chest
. Electromyography

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Brain MRI


Explanation

Congenital scoliosis is highly associated with VACTERL anomalies. Up to 30% of patients have genitourinary abnormalities and 10% have congenital heart defects, making renal ultrasound and echocardiography essential.

Question 2925

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

During attempted closed reduction of a dysplastic hip in a 1-year-old child, the surgeon notes that the hip reduces but is highly unstable in extension. What is the most common extra-articular anatomical block to concentric reduction that may necessitate an open approach?

. Ligamentum teres
. Pulvinar
. Iliopsoas tendon
. Transverse acetabular ligament
. Gluteus medius

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ligamentum teres


Explanation

The iliopsoas tendon is the most common extra-articular block to reduction, often compressing the capsule in an hourglass configuration. Intra-articular blocks include the inverted limbus, pulvinar, and transverse acetabular ligament.

Question 2926

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 13-year-old boy presents with right knee pain and a noticeable limp for 3 weeks. Radiographs reveal an unstable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) of the right hip. He is unable to bear weight, even with crutches. What is the most severe potential complication associated with this condition and its surgical fixation?

. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
. Chondrolysis
. Coxa vara
. Early osteoarthritis
. Femoral neck fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head


Explanation

Avascular necrosis (AVN) is the most devastating complication following SCFE and occurs at a much higher rate in unstable slips (up to 47%) compared to stable slips.

Question 2927

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A newborn girl with a positive Ortolani sign on the left hip is fitted with a Pavlik harness. Which of the following complications is most likely to occur if the anterior straps of the harness are adjusted to place the hips in excessive flexion (>120 degrees)?

. Femoral nerve palsy
. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
. Obturator nerve palsy
. Inferior dislocation of the hip
. Knee flexion contracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral nerve palsy


Explanation

Excessive flexion in a Pavlik harness causes compression of the femoral nerve against the inguinal ligament, leading to transient femoral nerve palsy. Excessive abduction (tight posterior straps) increases the risk of avascular necrosis.

Question 2928

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 2-year-old boy undergoes open reduction for a late-presenting DDH. During a medial approach, which structure must be carefully protected as it passes posterior to the iliopsoas tendon to avoid vascular compromise to the femoral head?

. Iliopsoas tendon
. Transverse acetabular ligament
. Medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA)
. Lateral femoral circumflex artery (LFCA)
. Obturator artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliopsoas tendon


Explanation

The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the primary blood supply to the femoral head in this age group. It is at significant risk during a medial approach for DDH as it courses posterior to the iliopsoas tendon.

Question 2929

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 13-year-old boy presents with an ankle fracture characterized by a sagittal fracture through the epiphysis, a transverse fracture through the physis, and a coronal fracture through the posterior metaphysis. What is the primary anatomical mechanism responsible for this specific fracture pattern?

. Hyper-pronation force
. Asymmetric physeal closure
. Fibular avulsion
. Previous undiagnosed osteochondritis dissecans
. Talar dome hypoplasia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hyper-pronation force


Explanation

This describes a triplane fracture, which occurs due to the asymmetric closure of the distal tibial physis. The physis typically closes first centrally, then medially, and finally laterally, making the lateral aspect vulnerable to this injury pattern.

Question 2930

Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine

According to the Bracing in Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis Trial (BRAIST), a rigid thoracolumbosacral orthosis is most effective at preventing curve progression to surgical thresholds when worn for a minimum of how many hours per day?

. 8 hours
. 12 hours
. 14 hours
. 18 hours
. 23 hours

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 8 hours


Explanation

The BRAIST trial established a clear dose-response relationship for bracing in adolescent idiopathic scoliosis, demonstrating highly significant clinical success in preventing surgery when braces are worn for 18 or more hours daily.

Question 2931

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 6-week-old female infant born breech presents for evaluation. Ultrasound demonstrates an alpha angle of 43 degrees and a beta angle of 78 degrees on the left hip. The right hip is normal. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Observation with repeat ultrasound in 4 weeks
. Application of a Pavlik harness
. Closed reduction and spica casting
. Open reduction and spica casting
. Application of a rigid abduction orthosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation with repeat ultrasound in 4 weeks


Explanation

An alpha angle less than 60 degrees and a beta angle greater than 55 degrees (Graf Type III/IV) indicates developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). The Pavlik harness is the gold standard initial treatment for DDH in infants under 6 months of age.

Question 2932

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 12-month-old child undergoes closed reduction and spica casting for developmental dysplasia of the hip. Which of the following positions during casting is the most significant risk factor for the development of iatrogenic avascular necrosis of the femoral head?

. Extreme flexion
. Extreme extension
. Extreme abduction
. Extreme internal rotation
. Moderate adduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extreme flexion


Explanation

Extreme abduction during spica casting forces the femoral head against the acetabulum and stretches the medial circumflex femoral artery, significantly increasing the risk of avascular necrosis (AVN). The hip should ideally be immobilized in the 'human position' of moderate flexion and mild abduction.

Question 2933

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 12-year-old obese boy presents with sudden inability to bear weight on his left leg. He reports a 2-month history of vague left knee pain. Radiographs reveal a severe, posterior translation of the proximal femoral epiphysis. He cannot bear weight even with crutches. What intervention best minimizes the risk of osteonecrosis?

. Closed reduction via forceful internal rotation prior to pinning
. Urgent capsulotomy and in situ single-screw fixation
. Skeletal traction for 2 weeks followed by pinning
. Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip only
. Subtrochanteric valgus osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction via forceful internal rotation prior to pinning


Explanation

This is an unstable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE), defined by the inability to bear weight. Urgent/emergent capsulotomy to decompress the intracapsular hematoma combined with in situ single-screw fixation is recommended to reduce the high risk of osteonecrosis associated with unstable SCFE.

Question 2934

Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine

A 5-year-old girl falls from monkey bars and sustains a widely displaced, extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture. On examination, the hand is pink and well-perfused, but the radial pulse is absent. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Urgent open exploration of the brachial artery
. Immediate Doppler ultrasound of the upper extremity
. Urgent closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
. Application of a long arm cast in 120 degrees of flexion
. Observation and elevation for 24 hours

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urgent open exploration of the brachial artery


Explanation

A 'pink, pulseless' hand after a supracondylar fracture indicates adequate collateral circulation. The next step is urgent closed reduction and percutaneous pinning. The pulse often returns after reduction; vascular exploration is only indicated if the hand becomes or remains dysvascular (white and pulseless) after reduction.

Question 2935

Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine

A 13-year-old premenarcheal female presents for scoliosis screening. Radiographs demonstrate a 32-degree right thoracic curve. Her Risser stage is 0. What is the most appropriate management?

. Observation with follow-up radiographs in 1 year
. Physical therapy focusing on core strengthening
. Prescription of a thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) for 16-23 hours daily
. Nighttime-only bending brace
. Posterior spinal fusion with instrumentation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation with follow-up radiographs in 1 year


Explanation

This patient has adolescent idiopathic scoliosis (AIS) with a curve between 25 and 45 degrees and significant growth remaining (premenarcheal, Risser 0). The standard of care to prevent curve progression is full-time bracing (TLSO) for 16 to 23 hours a day.

Question 2936

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. Which of the following is considered the most important prognostic factor for long-term hip joint congruency?

. Age at clinical onset
. Body mass index (BMI)
. Gender
. Bilateral versus unilateral involvement
. Presence of a limp at presentation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Age at clinical onset


Explanation

Age at the onset of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease is the most critical prognostic factor. Children younger than 6 years generally have a favorable outcome due to greater remodeling potential, whereas older children (especially >8 years) have a higher risk of developing a permanently deformed, incongruous femoral head.

Question 2937

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 13-year-old boy sustains an ankle injury while playing soccer. Radiographs reveal a distal tibia fracture that appears as a Salter-Harris III pattern on the AP view and a Salter-Harris II pattern on the lateral view. What is the classic mechanism of injury for this fracture?

. Severe plantarflexion and inversion
. External rotation of the foot on the leg
. Direct axial loading
. Hyperdorsiflexion
. Internal rotation with an adduction force

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Severe plantarflexion and inversion


Explanation

The described injury is a triplane fracture, which occurs in early adolescence as the distal tibial physis closes (central first, then medial, then lateral). It is characteristically caused by an external rotation force, leading to a multiplanar fracture.

Question 2938

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 5-month-old infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip has been treated in a Pavlik harness for 4 weeks. Serial ultrasounds show that the hip remains persistently dislocated and cannot be reduced in the harness. What is the most appropriate next step?

. Continue the Pavlik harness for another 4 weeks
. Discontinue the harness and proceed to closed reduction and spica casting
. Adjust the harness to provide maximum forced abduction
. Switch to a rigid abduction brace and observe
. Perform an immediate open reduction and pelvic osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Continue the Pavlik harness for another 4 weeks


Explanation

If a hip remains dislocated after 3 to 4 weeks of Pavlik harness treatment, the harness must be discontinued. Prolonged use of the harness on a dislocated hip causes posterior acetabular wear ('Pavlik harness disease'). The next step is a closed reduction with an arthrogram and spica casting.

Question 2939

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 14-year-old boy sustains a Salter-Harris II fracture of the distal femur with 30% posterior translation. Which of the following best describes the preferred definitive management and rationale?

. Closed reduction and casting due to the robust remodeling potential of the distal femur
. Observation as the deformity will correct with longitudinal growth
. Closed or open reduction with rigid percutaneous fixation to prevent displacement
. Resection of the metaphyseal fragment and bone grafting
. Spica casting in extreme flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction and casting due to the robust remodeling potential of the distal femur


Explanation

Distal femur physeal fractures have a high risk of growth arrest and displacement due to strong muscle pull (gastrocnemius). Because of this instability and the devastating consequences of displacement, they require anatomic reduction and secure fixation (typically crossed smooth pins or cannulated screws), avoiding simple casting.

Question 2940

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 14-year-old girl sustains a juvenile Tillaux fracture. Which ligament is responsible for the avulsion of the anterolateral fragment of the distal tibial epiphysis?

. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament
. Anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament
. Calcaneofibular ligament
. Deltoid ligament
. Anterior talofibular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament


Explanation

A juvenile Tillaux fracture is a Salter-Harris III fracture of the anterolateral distal tibia. It occurs via external rotation forces where the intact anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament (AITFL) avulses the anterolateral epiphysis, which is the last portion of the distal tibial physis to close.