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Question 2521

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 14-year-old boy underwent in situ pinning for a stable SCFE 6 months ago. He now presents with progressive hip stiffness. Examination shows severe restriction of all hip motions. Radiographs show a 2 mm joint space symmetrically but no evidence of AVN. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Septic arthritis
. Hardware failure
. Chondrolysis
. Femoroacetabular impingement
. Heterotopic ossification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chondrolysis


Explanation

Chondrolysis is a severe complication of SCFE, characterized by progressive joint space narrowing and marked global stiffness. It is strongly associated with unrecognized pin penetration into the joint space.

Question 2522

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 2-year-old boy is being followed after closed reduction and spica casting for DDH at age 8 months. Which radiographic finding is considered the earliest indicator of avascular necrosis of the femoral head in this patient?

. Enlargement of the femoral head
. Coxa magna
. Failure of appearance or asymmetric ossification of the capital femoral epiphysis
. Femoral neck lengthening
. Acetabular overcoverage

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Failure of appearance or asymmetric ossification of the capital femoral epiphysis


Explanation

The earliest radiographic sign of AVN in a treated DDH patient is the failure of the ossific nucleus to appear, or its asymmetric, delayed appearance compared to the normal, unaffected side.

Question 2523

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) represents a mechanical failure through which specific histologic layer of the physis?

. Reserve zone
. Proliferative zone
. Zone of maturation
. Zone of hypertrophy
. Zone of provisional calcification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Zone of hypertrophy


Explanation

SCFE typically occurs through the zone of hypertrophy in the physis. This zone is mechanically weakened during the adolescent growth spurt, increasing susceptibility to shear stresses.

Question 2524

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

An infant is born with bilateral dislocated hips and rigid extension contractures of the knees. Genetic testing confirms arthrogryposis multiplex congenita. What is the expected success rate of Pavlik harness treatment in this patient?

. Greater than 90%
. Approximately 75%
. Approximately 50%
. Approximately 25%
. Less than 10%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Less than 10%


Explanation

Teratologic hip dislocations, such as those associated with arthrogryposis or myelomeningocele, are rigid and have an extremely high failure rate with a Pavlik harness (<10% success). Open reduction is almost always required.

Question 2525

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

When evaluating a 5-month-old with suspected DDH, an AP pelvis radiograph is obtained. Which of the following describes a normal spatial relationship on this imaging?

. The femoral metaphysis lies lateral to Perkins line and superior to Hilgenreiners line.
. The femoral metaphysis lies medial to Perkins line and inferior to Hilgenreiners line.
. Shentons line is visibly disrupted by 1 cm.
. The center edge angle of Wiberg is less than 15 degrees.
. The acetabular index is 40 degrees.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The femoral metaphysis lies medial to Perkins line and inferior to Hilgenreiners line.


Explanation

In a normal pediatric hip radiograph, the ossified proximal femoral metaphysis should lie in the lower medial quadrant formed by the intersection of Perkin's line (vertical) and Hilgenreiner's line (horizontal).

Question 2526

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 10-year-old girl with primary hypothyroidism presents with bilateral vague knee pain. Frog-leg lateral radiographs of the pelvis demonstrate widening of the bilateral proximal femoral physes without obvious slippage. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Reassurance and follow up in 1 year
. Physical therapy for patellofemoral syndrome
. Bilateral MRI of the hips
. Strict bed rest and urgent bilateral in situ pinning
. Pavlik harness application

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Strict bed rest and urgent bilateral in situ pinning


Explanation

Physeal widening with symptoms in an endocrine patient indicates a "pre-slip" state. Due to the extremely high risk of progression to bilateral displacement, urgent prophylactic in situ pinning is warranted.

Question 2527

Topic: Pediatric Hip

During an anterior open reduction for a developmental dislocation of the hip in a 14-month-old, the surgeon notes an hour-glass constriction of the joint capsule. Which structure is directly responsible for creating this specific capsular constriction?

. Ligamentum teres
. Transverse acetabular ligament
. Iliopsoas tendon
. Gluteus medius
. Reflected head of the rectus femoris

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliopsoas tendon


Explanation

The iliopsoas tendon crosses the anterior aspect of the hip capsule. In a chronically dislocated DDH, it creates a tight hour-glass constriction, acting as a major mechanical block to concentric reduction.

Question 2528

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 6-week-old infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is being treated with a Pavlik harness. During a follow-up visit, the parents report that the child has stopped kicking the left leg. On examination, there is an absence of active knee extension on the left side, but withdrawal to painful stimuli on the plantar foot is intact. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Immediate transition to a rigid hip spica cast
. Removal of the Pavlik harness and observation for neurological recovery
. Immediate closed reduction under general anesthesia
. Adjusting the harness to increase hip flexion
. Urgent MRI of the lumbar spine to rule out dysraphism

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Removal of the Pavlik harness and observation for neurological recovery


Explanation

Femoral nerve palsy is a known complication of Pavlik harness treatment, typically caused by hyperflexion of the hips. Management consists of temporarily discontinuing the harness or significantly reducing flexion until the nerve recovers, which usually resolves spontaneously.

Question 2529

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 13-year-old boy with a BMI in the 98th percentile presents to the emergency department unable to bear weight on his right leg after tripping over a rug. Radiographs confirm a slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). According to the Loder classification, which of the following is the most significant consequence of his inability to bear weight?

. A 50% or greater risk of developing chondrolysis
. A high likelihood of requiring a prophylactic contralateral pinning
. An increased risk of developing avascular necrosis (AVN) up to 47%
. An indication for an immediate subtrochanteric osteotomy
. A reduced risk of further posterior physeal displacement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. An increased risk of developing avascular necrosis (AVN) up to 47%


Explanation

The Loder classification defines an unstable SCFE by the inability to bear weight, even with assistive devices. Unstable SCFE has a significantly higher rate of avascular necrosis (AVN), reported to be up to 47%, compared to nearly 0% in stable slips.

Question 2530

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 4-week-old female infant born in breech presentation undergoes a screening hip ultrasound. The coronal view demonstrates a shallow acetabulum with an alpha angle of 45 degrees and a beta angle of 80 degrees. According to the Graf classification, what is the most appropriate management?

. Reassurance and repeat ultrasound in 4 weeks
. Application of a Pavlik harness
. Immediate closed reduction and spica casting
. Open reduction with capsulorrhaphy
. Observation with triple-diapering technique

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Application of a Pavlik harness


Explanation

An alpha angle of less than 60 degrees indicates developmental dysplasia (Graf type IIc or worse depending on specific features). A Pavlik harness is the standard of care for infants younger than 6 months with dysplastic or dislocated but reducible hips.

Question 2531

Topic: Pediatric Hip

An 8-year-old boy presents with bilateral groin pain and an altered gait. Radiographs demonstrate bilateral stable slipped capital femoral epiphyses (SCFE). His height is in the 5th percentile, and his weight is in the 90th percentile. Which of the following laboratory evaluations is most critical in determining the etiology of his condition?

. Complete blood count and inflammatory markers
. Serum calcium, phosphate, and alkaline phosphatase
. TSH and Free T4
. Hemoglobin A1c
. Serum protein electrophoresis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. TSH and Free T4


Explanation

Patients presenting with SCFE under the age of 10 or with simultaneous bilateral presentation should be evaluated for underlying endocrine abnormalities. Hypothyroidism is the most common endocrine disorder associated with atypical SCFE.

Question 2532

Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine

A 13-year-old girl with adolescent idiopathic scoliosis (AIS) presents for follow-up. She is pre-menarchal and Risser stage 0. Standing radiographs reveal a progressive right thoracic curve measuring 32 degrees. Based on the BrAIST trial, what is the most appropriate recommendation?

. Observation with radiographs in 6 months
. Nighttime-only bending brace
. Full-time TLSO bracing for at least 18 hours per day
. Immediate posterior spinal fusion
. Vertebral body tethering

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Full-time TLSO bracing for at least 18 hours per day


Explanation

The BrAIST trial established that full-time bracing (at least 18 hours daily) significantly decreases the rate of curve progression to the surgical threshold in skeletally immature patients with curves between 25 and 40 degrees.

Question 2533

Topic: Pediatric Hip

In which of the following patients presenting with a unilateral slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) is prophylactic in situ pinning of the contralateral hip most strongly indicated?

. A 14-year-old obese male with an acute-on-chronic slip
. A 12-year-old female with a stable slip and normal endocrine function
. An 11-year-old male with chronic renal failure and renal osteodystrophy
. A 15-year-old male with a closed triradiate cartilage
. A 13-year-old female with a strong family history of DDH

Correct Answer & Explanation

. An 11-year-old male with chronic renal failure and renal osteodystrophy


Explanation

Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip is strongly recommended in patients with endocrine or metabolic disorders (such as renal osteodystrophy, hypothyroidism, or panhypopituitarism) due to an exceedingly high risk of subsequent bilateral involvement.

Question 2534

Topic: Pediatric Hip

Following a closed reduction of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) in a 6-month-old, the child is placed in a hip spica cast. To minimize the risk of developing iatrogenic avascular necrosis (AVN), which of the following joint positions must be strictly avoided during casting?

. Extreme abduction coupled with extreme flexion
. Moderate flexion and neutral rotation
. Flexion of 100 degrees and adduction
. Flexion of 90 degrees and 45 degrees of abduction
. Flexion of 110 degrees and neutral abduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extreme abduction coupled with extreme flexion


Explanation

Extreme abduction (>60 degrees) combined with extreme flexion places high tension on the medial circumflex femoral artery, significantly increasing the risk of avascular necrosis. The Ramsey 'safe zone' is utilized to balance hip stability with adequate perfusion.

Question 2535

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

When evaluating an anteroposterior pelvis radiograph of a 12-month-old child suspected of having residual developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH), the acetabular index is measured. What is generally considered the upper limit of normal for the acetabular index at this age?

. 15 degrees
. 25 degrees
. 35 degrees
. 45 degrees
. 55 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 25 degrees


Explanation

In a normally developing 12-month-old child, the acetabular index should be 25 degrees or less. An angle significantly greater than this indicates ongoing acetabular dysplasia that may require further intervention.

Question 2536

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 4-week-old female is treated with a Pavlik harness for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). At the 2-week follow-up, she exhibits decreased spontaneous extension of the right knee and an absent patellar reflex. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Continue the harness and re-evaluate in 1 week
. Adjust the posterior strap to increase flexion
. Remove the harness and apply a spica cast immediately
. Remove the harness and observe for neurologic recovery
. Obtain an urgent MRI of the lumbar spine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Remove the harness and observe for neurologic recovery


Explanation

Femoral nerve palsy is a known complication of hyperflexion in a Pavlik harness, presenting as decreased knee extension. The harness must be discontinued immediately to allow for neurologic recovery before pursuing alternative treatments.

Question 2537

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 13-year-old boy presents with severe left hip pain and an inability to bear weight following a minor fall. Radiographs confirm a slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Which of the following is the most likely severe complication directly associated with this specific presentation?

. Chondrolysis
. Osteonecrosis
. Femoral-acetabular impingement
. Slipped contralateral epiphysis
. Premature osteoarthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteonecrosis


Explanation

The inability to bear weight, even with crutches, defines an unstable SCFE. Unstable SCFE has a significantly higher rate of osteonecrosis (up to 47%) compared to stable SCFE, making it the most critical complication.

Question 2538

Topic: Pediatric Hip

An infant undergoes screening ultrasound for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). The report notes an alpha angle of 45 degrees. Which of the following anatomic structures form the lines used to measure the alpha angle?

. The bony roof of the acetabulum and the ilium
. The cartilaginous roof and the ilium
. The femoral head and the triradiate cartilage
. The labrum and the joint capsule
. The ischium and the pubic bone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The bony roof of the acetabulum and the ilium


Explanation

The alpha angle measures the bony concavity of the acetabulum and is formed by the intersection of the baseline (ilium) and the bony roof line. An alpha angle less than 60 degrees generally indicates a shallow, dysplastic acetabulum.

Question 2539

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 7-year-old boy, whose weight is in the 30th percentile, presents with a stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Which of the following laboratory studies is most highly indicated for this patient?

. Complete blood count with differential
. C-reactive protein and ESR
. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4
. Rheumatoid factor
. HLA-B27

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4


Explanation

SCFE presenting in children under 10 years old, over 16 years old, or with atypical body habitus (weight < 50th percentile) is highly associated with endocrine disorders. Hypothyroidism is a leading cause, making TSH and free T4 essential screening tests.

Question 2540

Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine
A 12-year-old premenarchal female with adolescent idiopathic scoliosis (AIS) has a right thoracic curve of 32 degrees and a Risser stage of 1. According to the Bracing in Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis Trial (BRAIST), what is the most significant factor determining the success of brace treatment?
. The specific type of custom brace prescribed
. The number of hours the brace is worn per day
. The flexibility of the curve on lateral bending films
. The concomitant use of physiotherapeutic scoliosis specific exercises
. The specific vertebral levels of the apical segment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The number of hours the brace is worn per day


Explanation

The BRAIST study conclusively demonstrated a strong dose-response relationship in bracing efficacy for AIS. Wearing the brace for more hours per day significantly increases the success rate in preventing progression to the surgical threshold.