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Question 2421

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 4-month-old female with developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is being treated with a Pavlik harness. At a follow-up visit, the mother notes the child is no longer kicking her left leg. On exam, there is an absent patellar reflex and decreased active knee extension. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Adjust the anterior straps to increase hip flexion
. Discontinue the Pavlik harness
. Switch to a rigid abduction orthosis
. Perform immediate closed reduction and spica casting
. Obtain an emergent MRI of the lumbar spine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Discontinue the Pavlik harness


Explanation

The patient has developed a femoral nerve palsy, a known complication of hyperflexion in a Pavlik harness. The most appropriate immediate management is to discontinue the harness and observe for neurologic recovery.

Question 2422

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 13-year-old obese male presents to the emergency department with acute left groin pain and inability to bear weight. He reports a 3-month history of mild intermittent knee pain. Radiographs reveal a left slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Which of the following factors is the strongest predictor of developing avascular necrosis (AVN) in this patient?

. Duration of prodromal symptoms
. Degree of slip angle on the lateral radiograph
. Inability to bear weight with or without crutches
. The patient's body mass index (BMI)
. Associated endocrine abnormalities

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inability to bear weight with or without crutches


Explanation

The Loder classification defines an unstable SCFE by the patient's inability to bear weight, even with crutches. Unstable slips have a significantly higher risk of developing avascular necrosis compared to stable slips.

Question 2423

Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine

A 12-year-old girl is evaluated for adolescent idiopathic scoliosis. Which of the following radiographic parameters indicates the highest risk for curve progression?

. Risser stage 4
. Open triradiate cartilage
. Closed triradiate cartilage
. Sanders maturity stage 7
. Menarche 1 year ago

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open triradiate cartilage


Explanation

Curve progression risk is highest during the peak height velocity, which correlates closely with an open triradiate cartilage and lower Sanders maturity stages (1-3). Risser 4, closed triradiate cartilage, and post-menarcheal status indicate decreasing growth velocity.

Question 2424

Topic: Pediatric Hip

An 18-month-old female with neglected developmental dysplasia of the hip is scheduled for an open reduction via an anterior Smith-Petersen approach. During the procedure, several anatomical structures must be addressed to allow concentric reduction. Which of the following represents an extra-articular block to reduction?

. Ligamentum teres
. Transverse acetabular ligament
. Inverted limbus
. Iliopsoas tendon
. Pulvinar

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliopsoas tendon


Explanation

Blocks to reduction in DDH are categorized as extra-articular or intra-articular. The iliopsoas tendon and capsular constriction (hourglass capsule) are extra-articular blocks, whereas the ligamentum teres, transverse acetabular ligament, pulvinar, and inverted limbus are intra-articular blocks.

Question 2425

Topic: Pediatric Hip

An 8-year-old boy presents with bilateral slipped capital femoral epiphyses. His height is in the 5th percentile and his weight is in the 90th percentile. Which of the following laboratory studies is most critical in evaluating the underlying etiology of his condition?

. Serum calcium and phosphate
. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4
. Growth hormone stimulation test
. Testosterone levels
. Hemoglobin A1c

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4


Explanation

SCFE presenting in children under 10 years of age, or those with atypical body habitus (short stature), strongly suggests an underlying endocrinopathy. Hypothyroidism is the most common endocrine disorder associated with atypical SCFE.

Question 2426

Topic: Pediatric Hip

In the treatment of developmental dysplasia of the hip with a Pavlik harness or spica cast, maintaining the hip in excessive abduction significantly increases the risk of which of the following complications?

. Femoral nerve palsy
. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
. Inferior hip dislocation
. Acetabular dysplasia
. Coxa magna

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head


Explanation

Excessive abduction during DDH treatment places tension on the medial circumflex femoral artery against the margin of the acetabulum or iliopsoas. This vascular compromise leads to avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

Question 2427

Topic: Pediatric Hip

Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip is most strongly indicated in which of the following patients presenting with a unilateral slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

. A 14-year-old boy with idiopathic SCFE and a BMI of 35
. A 12-year-old girl with idiopathic SCFE and open triradiate cartilages
. A 10-year-old boy with chronic kidney disease on dialysis
. A 15-year-old boy with a history of slipped capital femoral epiphysis in his older brother
. A 13-year-old girl with a stable SCFE and a Risser score of 1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A 10-year-old boy with chronic kidney disease on dialysis


Explanation

Prophylactic contralateral pinning is indicated in patients with underlying metabolic or endocrine disorders, such as renal osteodystrophy or hypothyroidism. These patients have a high risk of developing a contralateral slip (up to 100% in some metabolic conditions).

Question 2428

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 4-week-old female infant is undergoing treatment for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) with a Pavlik harness. During a follow-up visit, the mother reports that the infant is no longer actively extending her knee on the affected side. Examination confirms absent active knee extension, though patellar reflexes are intact. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Discontinue the harness and place the infant in a hip spica cast
. Adjust the posterior straps to decrease hip abduction
. Adjust the anterior straps to decrease hip flexion
. Obtain an immediate MRI of the lumbar spine
. Perform a closed reduction in the operating room

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adjust the anterior straps to decrease hip flexion


Explanation

Femoral nerve palsy is a known complication of Pavlik harness treatment, typically caused by excessive hip flexion. The initial management is to adjust the anterior straps to decrease the degree of hip flexion or temporarily discontinue the harness until nerve function recovers.

Question 2429

Topic: Pediatric Hip

When evaluating coronal ultrasound images for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) in a 6-week-old infant, the alpha angle is routinely measured. Which anatomic structure serves as the primary landmark for determining this angle?

. Triradiate cartilage
. Bony acetabular roof
. Cartilaginous labrum
. Femoral head ossific nucleus
. Transverse acetabular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bony acetabular roof


Explanation

The alpha angle on a developmental hip ultrasound evaluates the bony acetabular roof. It is formed by the intersection of the baseline (iliac wing) and the bony roof line; an angle greater than 60 degrees is considered normal.

Question 2430

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 12-year-old boy presents with an acute on chronic slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) of the left hip. Under which of the following circumstances is prophylactic in-situ pinning of the contralateral, asymptomatic hip most strongly indicated?

. Always, regardless of patient age or endocrine status
. If the patient has a BMI > 95th percentile
. If the patient has hypothyroidism, renal osteodystrophy, or is < 10 years old
. If the left hip has a Southwick slip angle > 50 degrees
. If the patient requires an open subcapital realignment (modified Dunn procedure)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. If the patient has hypothyroidism, renal osteodystrophy, or is < 10 years old


Explanation

Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip is highly recommended in patients with an elevated risk of bilateral disease. Risk factors for bilateral SCFE include underlying endocrinopathies (like hypothyroidism), metabolic disorders (renal osteodystrophy), or presentation at a young age (<10 years).

Question 2431

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 13-year-old boy with a BMI of 35 presents with a 2-day history of severe right hip pain and absolute inability to bear weight, even with crutches. According to the Loder classification, what is his approximate risk of developing avascular necrosis (AVN) following treatment?

. Less than 5%
. 10 to 15%
. 20 to 25%
. Up to 50%
. 100%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Up to 50%


Explanation

Inability to bear weight defines an unstable SCFE according to the Loder classification. Unstable slips carry a significantly higher risk of avascular necrosis (AVN), historically reported to be up to 47-50%.

Question 2432

Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine

A 12-year-old premenarchal female is diagnosed with Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis (AIS). Radiographs reveal a right thoracic curve of 25 degrees and a Risser stage of 0. Based on the Lonstein and Carlson nomogram, what is her approximate risk of curve progression?

. 10%
. 20%
. 45%
. 68%
. 95%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 68%


Explanation

According to Lonstein and Carlson, a premenarchal female with a Risser 0 and a curve between 20 and 29 degrees has roughly a 68% risk of curve progression. This high risk warrants initiation of brace treatment.

Question 2433

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 14-year-old boy is evaluated 6 months after an uncomplicated in-situ percutaneous pinning for a stable SCFE. He now reports worsening hip pain and demonstrates a global loss of range of motion in the affected hip. Joint space narrowing is evident on radiographs. What is the most likely etiology?

. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
. Unrecognized pin penetration into the hip joint leading to chondrolysis
. Development of an acute low-grade septic arthritis
. Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement
. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis of the contralateral hip

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Unrecognized pin penetration into the hip joint leading to chondrolysis


Explanation

Global loss of motion and joint space narrowing after SCFE pinning strongly suggests chondrolysis. The most common iatrogenic cause of chondrolysis in this setting is unrecognized prominent hardware penetrating into the articular surface.

Question 2434

Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine

The BrAIST (Bracing in Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis Trial) study significantly impacted the management of AIS. Which variable was shown to be most highly correlated with treatment success (prevention of curve progression to surgery)?

. Initial curve magnitude less than 20 degrees
. Total hours of brace wear per day
. Chronological age > 14 years at brace initiation
. Use of a nighttime-only bending brace instead of a rigid TLSO
. Male gender

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total hours of brace wear per day


Explanation

The BrAIST trial demonstrated a strong dose-response relationship between brace wear and success. Patients who wore the brace for more than 13-18 hours per day had significantly higher success rates in avoiding surgery.

Question 2435

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 6-month-old girl has been treated with a Pavlik harness for 4 weeks due to a completely dislocated left hip (Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip). Serial ultrasounds demonstrate that the hip remains persistently dislocated despite confirmed appropriate strap tension and compliance. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Continue the Pavlik harness for an additional 4 weeks
. Transition to a rigid abduction orthosis for 4 weeks
. Closed reduction, arthrogram, and spica casting
. Open reduction and pelvic osteotomy
. Observation until age 1 year, followed by open reduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction, arthrogram, and spica casting


Explanation

Failure to achieve reduction in a Pavlik harness after 3-4 weeks is an indication to abandon the harness to prevent 'Pavlik harness disease' (posterior acetabular wear). The most appropriate next step is a closed reduction with an arthrogram and spica casting.

Question 2436

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 12-year-old boy presents with a unilateral stable Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE) of the left hip. Which of the following patient factors is the strongest absolute indication for prophylactic in situ pinning of the asymptomatic right hip?

. Body Mass Index (BMI) greater than the 95th percentile
. Male sex
. Initial slip angle greater than 50 degrees
. Presence of a diagnosed endocrine disorder such as hypothyroidism
. Open triradiate cartilage on the affected side

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presence of a diagnosed endocrine disorder such as hypothyroidism


Explanation

Endocrine disorders (such as hypothyroidism, growth hormone deficiency, or renal osteodystrophy) strongly predispose patients to bilateral SCFE, often sequentially. Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip is highly recommended in these patients.

Question 2437

Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine

A 12-year-old premenarchal girl with Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis (AIS) is found to have a right thoracic curve of 32 degrees. Her Risser stage is 0. What is the most appropriate management?

. Observation with radiographs every 6 months
. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) bracing for 16-23 hours daily
. Nighttime-only bending brace
. Posterior spinal fusion with pedicle screws
. Anterior tethering procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) bracing for 16-23 hours daily


Explanation

In a skeletally immature patient (Risser 0-2, premenarchal) with a curve between 25 and 45 degrees, full-time TLSO bracing (prescribed for 16-23 hours daily) is indicated to halt curve progression.

Question 2438

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 2-year-old girl is brought to the clinic for a painless limp. She has a positive Trendelenburg gait. Radiographs show a dislocated right hip with a false acetabulum and hypoplastic femoral nucleus. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this late-presenting developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)?

. Pavlik harness trial
. Closed reduction and spica casting
. Open reduction, capsulorrhaphy, and likely pelvic osteotomy
. Varus derotational osteotomy (VDRO) alone
. Observation until age 4 to allow for capsular stretching

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction, capsulorrhaphy, and likely pelvic osteotomy


Explanation

In a child older than 18 months presenting with a dislocated hip, closed reduction is rarely successful. Open reduction combined with a pelvic osteotomy (and sometimes a femoral shortening osteotomy) is required to achieve and maintain a stable, concentric reduction.

Question 2439

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 13-year-old girl with a high BMI presents to the emergency department with acute right hip pain after a minor slip. She cannot bear weight on the right leg, even with the assistance of crutches. Radiographs confirm a slipped capital femoral epiphysis. Compared to a stable slip, this patient is at significantly higher risk for which of the following complications?

. Chondrolysis
. Avascular necrosis (AVN)
. Contralateral SCFE
. Premature physeal closure
. Nonunion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avascular necrosis (AVN)


Explanation

The inability to bear weight even with crutches defines an unstable SCFE. Unstable slips carry a significantly higher risk of avascular necrosis (AVN), historically reported between 20% to 50%.

Question 2440

Topic: Pediatric Hip

During an open reduction for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) via an anterior approach, several structures are identified that may block concentric reduction. Which of the following is considered an EXTRA-articular obstacle to reduction?

. Ligamentum teres
. Inverted limbus
. Pulvinar
. Transverse acetabular ligament
. Iliopsoas tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliopsoas tendon


Explanation

The iliopsoas tendon is an extra-articular block to reduction that compresses the capsule into an hourglass shape. The pulvinar, inverted limbus, transverse acetabular ligament, and ligamentum teres are intra-articular obstacles.