Menu

Question 2361

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 12-year-old boy with obesity presents with left hip pain and an obligatory external rotation during hip flexion. He is diagnosed with a slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Which of the following is the strongest indication for prophylactic pinning of the asymptomatic contralateral hip?

. Age older than 14 years
. Endocrine disorder (e.g., hypothyroidism)
. Female sex
. Chronic presentation of the slip
. Grade I slip

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Endocrine disorder (e.g., hypothyroidism)


Explanation

Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip in SCFE is controversial but is generally recommended in patients with a high risk of developing a contralateral slip. Strong indications include the presence of an endocrine disorder (such as hypothyroidism, panhypopituitarism, or renal osteodystrophy), prior radiation therapy, or presentation at a particularly young age (e.g., males <12 years, females <10 years). Age older than 14, female sex alone, chronicity, or severity of the current slip are not primary indications.

Question 2362

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 13-year-old boy with a BMI of 32 presents with 3 weeks of left knee pain and an antalgic gait. He is able to bear weight on the affected limb. Radiographs demonstrate a mild left slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Which of the following accurately describes the anatomic displacement that occurs in SCFE?

. The epiphysis displaces anteriorly and superiorly relative to the metaphysis
. The metaphysis displaces anteriorly and externally rotates relative to the epiphysis
. The metaphysis displaces posteriorly and internally rotates relative to the epiphysis
. The epiphysis displaces laterally and internally rotates relative to the metaphysis
. The metaphysis displaces medially and superiorly relative to the epiphysis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The metaphysis displaces anteriorly and externally rotates relative to the epiphysis


Explanation

In a slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE), the epiphysis actually remains held within the acetabulum by the ligamentum teres, while the femoral neck (metaphysis) displaces anteriorly and externally rotates relative to the epiphysis. On radiographs, this makes the epiphysis appear to have displaced posteriorly and inferiorly relative to the neck.

Question 2363

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 13-year-old obese male presents with 3 weeks of left knee pain and a limp. Examination reveals obligate external rotation of the left hip with passive flexion. Radiographs confirm a mild stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Immediate closed reduction and spica casting
. In situ fixation with a single cannulated screw in the center of the epiphysis
. Open reduction and internal fixation through a surgical dislocation approach
. Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip only
. Non-weight bearing with crutches and close observation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. In situ fixation with a single cannulated screw in the center of the epiphysis


Explanation

The gold standard for a mild, stable SCFE is in situ fixation using a single cannulated screw placed in the center of the epiphysis. Closed reduction is contraindicated due to the high risk of precipitating avascular necrosis. Open reduction (e.g., modified Dunn procedure) is typically reserved for severe or unstable slips to correct the deformity acutely while protecting the blood supply. Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip is performed in certain high-risk demographics, but the affected hip must be treated.

Question 2364

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 13-year-old obese boy is brought to the clinic due to left groin pain and an absolute inability to bear weight on the left leg, even with the assistance of crutches, for the past 2 days following a minor fall. Pelvic radiographs confirm a severe slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). According to the Loder classification, this patient is at the highest risk for developing which of the following complications?

. Chondrolysis
. Avascular necrosis (AVN)
. Slip progression
. Contralateral slip
. Deep infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avascular necrosis (AVN)


Explanation

The Loder classification divides SCFE into stable (able to bear weight with or without crutches) and unstable (unable to bear weight). Unstable SCFE has a notoriously high rate of avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head, historically reported up to 47%, compared to a near 0% AVN rate in stable slips. Prompt recognition and appropriate operative planning are required to mitigate this risk.

Question 2365

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 12-year-old boy presents with right hip pain and an obligatory external rotation with hip flexion. Radiographs confirm a stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) on the right. In which of the following clinical scenarios is prophylactic in situ pinning of the asymptomatic, contralateral (left) hip most strongly indicated?

. Body mass index > 95th percentile
. Age greater than 14 years at presentation
. Concomitant hypothyroidism
. Right slip angle > 50 degrees
. African American ethnicity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Concomitant hypothyroidism


Explanation

Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip in patients presenting with a unilateral SCFE is strongly recommended for those with underlying endocrine disorders (such as hypothyroidism, panhypopituitarism, and renal osteodystrophy) or a history of pelvic radiation. These patients have an exceptionally high rate of developing bilateral disease (often approaching 100%). Other relative indications include presentation at an age less than 10 years or the inability to reliably follow up.

Question 2366

Topic: Pediatric Hip

An obese 10-year-old boy has had left groin pain and a limp for the past 2 months. Examination reveals decreased abduction and internal rotation. Laboratory studies show normal renal function and an elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level. AP and frog lateral radiographs of the pelvis are shown in Figures 30a and 30b. What is the best course of action?

. Traction followed by reduction and pinning
. In situ pinning of the left hip
. In situ pinning of both hips
. No weight bearing on the left side and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
. Femoral realignment osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. In situ pinning of both hips


Explanation

The radiographs show a grade I slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) that is classified as stable because the child is able to bear weight. The elevated TSH level indicates possible hypothyroidism. SCFE usually occurs in boys age 12 to 14 years. Because of the patient's young age and hypothyroidism, he is at increased risk for slippage of the contralateral hip; therefore, prophylactic pinning of the uninvolved side also should be considered. Because of the risk of slip progression, crutch treatment and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are not indicated. Realignment osteotomy is not indicated for grade I SCFE. Traction to reduce the slip, followed by pinning, has been advocated for unstable slips but is not indicated here. Loder RT, Wittenberg B, DeSilva G: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis associated with endocrine disorders. J Pediatr Orthop 1995;15:349-356.

Question 2367

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 2-day-old infant has the hyperextended knee deformity shown in Figure 7. No other deformities are found on examination. A radiograph shows that the ossified portion of the proximal tibia is slightly anterior to that of the distal femur. Management should consist of

Orthopedic Surgery Board Review 2026 | High-Yield MCQs - Set 6 - Figure 12

. gentle stretching and serial casting.
. Bryant traction for 1 to 2 weeks, followed by closed reduction.
. percutaneous quadriceps recession, followed by serial casting.
. delayed open reduction at age 6 months to avoid iatrogenic damage to either the distal femoral or proximal tibial physes.
. a renal ultrasound.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. gentle stretching and serial casting.


Explanation

Congenital dislocation of the knee is an uncommon deformity that varies in presentation from simple hyperextension to complete anterior dislocation of the tibia on the femur. Treatment varies with the age at presentation and the severity of the deformity. Most authors recommend early nonsurgical management. A recent study of 24 congenital knee dislocations in 17 patients found that satisfactory results were obtained in most instances using closed treatment. Based on their findings, the authors concluded that immediate reduction or serial casting should be performed when the patient is seen early after birth. If the patient is seen late and correction cannot be achieved by serial casting, traction followed by closed or open reduction may be necessary. Early percutaneous quadriceps recession has been described for complex congenital knee dislocations associated with underlying disorders, such as arthrogryposis and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. Ko JY, Shih CH, Wenger DR: Congenital dislocation of the knee. J Pediatr Orthop 1999;19:252-259. Johnson E, Audell R, Oppenheim WL: Congenital dislocation of the knee. J Pediatr Orthop 1987;7:194-200.

Question 2368

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 3-year-old patient with L3 myelomeningocele has bilateral dislocated hips. Management should consist of

General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 20) - Figure 13

. observation.
. bilateral open reduction.
. bilateral open reduction and psoas transfers.
. bilateral open reduction and external oblique transfers.
. bilateral valgus osteotomies.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. observation.


Explanation

In patients with myelomeningocele, the presence of bilateral hip dislocation does not affect ambulation, bracing requirements, sitting ability, degree of scoliosis, or level of comfort. There is little evidence to support active treatment of bilateral hip dislocations in patients with myelomeningocele proximal to L4. Fraser RK, Hoffman EB, Sparks LT, et al: The unstable hip and mid-lumbar myelomeningocele. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1992;74:143-146.

Question 2369

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

An obese 4-year-old boy has infantile Blount's disease. Radiographs reveal a metaphyseal-diaphyseal angle of 18 degrees and a depression of the medial proximal tibial physis. Management should consist of

General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 18) - Figure 93

. observation.
. varus prevention orthoses.
. physeal bar resection.
. proximal tibial osteotomy that produces a neutral mechanical axis.
. proximal tibial osteotomy that produces 10 degrees of valgus.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. proximal tibial osteotomy that produces 10 degrees of valgus.


Explanation

The deformity is too severe for observation, and at age 4 years, the child is too old for orthotic treatment. To prevent recurrence, surgery should be performed before irreversible changes occur in the medial physis. A proximal tibial osteotomy should overcorrect the mechanical axis to 10 degrees of valgus. Bar resection has not been shown to be as effective in this severe deformity, especially without a concomitant osteotomy. Raney EM, Topoleski TA, Yaghoubian R, Guidera KJ, Marshall JG: Orthotic treatment of infantile tibia vara. J Pediatr Orthop 1998;18:670-674.

Question 2370

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A toddler is brought in by his parents for evaluation of gait problems. Birth history and neurologic examination are unremarkable. After evaluating femoral torsion, tibial torsion, and foot contour, the diagnosis is excessive internal tibial torsion. The parents should be advised to expect which of the following outcomes?

. Resolution by age 3 or 4 years without active treatment in most patients
. Resolution by age 8 or 9 years without active treatment in most patients
. Resolution with casting as the most effective treatment
. Resolution with bracing and shoe modification as the most effective treatment
. Resolution with surgery as the most effective treatment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Resolution by age 3 or 4 years without active treatment in most patients


Explanation

Excessive internal tibial torsion is a common cause of intoeing in toddlers. In most children, this resolves spontaneously by 3 to 4 years of age. Intoeing in elementary age children is usually the result of excessive femoral anteversion. Studies have shown that active intervention (casting, splinting, and shoe modifications) has no demonstrable effect on the natural history or resolution of tibial torsion. Surgery is rarely indicated in adolescents with severe internal tibial torsion that has not resolved and is resulting in cosmetic and functional problems. Canale ST, Beaty JH: Operative Pediatric Orthopaedics. St Louis, MO, Mosby Year Book, 1991, pp 357-385.

Question 2371

Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine

A 7-year-old boy has a swollen and deformed right arm after falling off his bicycle. Radiographs reveal a completely displaced posterolateral supracondylar humeral fracture. Examination reveals a warm, pink hand and forearm but absent pulses. What is the next most appropriate step in management?

General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 14) - Figure 37

. Angiography
. Immediate closed reduction and casting in extension
. Surgical exploration and repair of the artery, followed by skeletal stabilization
. Closed reduction and pinning, followed by reassessment of the vascular status
. Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surgical exploration and repair of the artery, followed by skeletal stabilization


Explanation

The incidence of vascular injury in supracondylar humeral fractures is directly related to the degree and direction of displacement. Significant posterior lateral displacement tends to result in brachial artery and median nerve injuries, and posterior medial displacement may lead to radial nerve injury. The brachial artery is always injured at the level of the fracture; therefore, angiography or MRA will not assist in locating the injury. The treatment of choice is surgical reduction and stabilization of the fracture, followed by reassessment of the vascular status. If the hand is pink and warm or pulses can be detected with doppler, it is reasonable to follow the extremity closely after surgery. If the arm becomes pulseless and white, immediate anterior exploration of the arm is indicated. The artery is often entrapped in the fracture and once extricated, will provide adequate blood flow. If the artery is injured, a primary repair or vein graft is needed. Shaw BA: The role of angiography in assessing vascular injuries associated with supracondylar humerus fractures remains controversial. J Pediatr Orthop 1998;18:273. Sabharwal S, Tredwell SJ, Beauchamp RD, et al: Management of pulseless pink hand in pediatric supracondylar fractures of humerus. J Pediatr Orthop 1997;17:303-310.

Question 2372

Topic: 4. Pediatrics
Figure 19 shows the radiograph of a 12-year-old boy who sustained an injury to his hand when another child fell on him. Management should consist of:
. early motion and muscle strengthening.
. immobilization in a thumb spica cast with the thumb abducted.
. open reduction and internal fixation through a volar approach.
. open reduction and internal fixation through a dorsal approach.
. closed reduction and percutaneous pin fixation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. open reduction and internal fixation through a dorsal approach.


Explanation

The patient has a Salter-Harris type III fracture of the proximal phalanx of the thumb. It is usually caused by an abduction injury where the ulnar collateral ligament avulses a fragment away from the proximal epiphysis and is the most common childhood gamekeeper's injury. If there is greater than 1 mm of separation or a significant articular step-off, an open reduction, performed through an extensor aponeurosis-splitting approach, is required to reestablish joint congruity and stability. Percutaneous or closed methods of reduction are usually ineffective. The dorsal approach avoids the volar neurovascular structures. Since the ulnar collateral ligament is still attached, this area does not need to be visualized. The major goal is to reestablish joint congruity and bony stability. This can be easily performed via the dorsal approach.

Question 2373

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

Figure 12 shows the radiograph of a patient who has anterior knee pain. History reveals a femoral fracture at age 5 years. What is the most likely cause of the deformity?

General Orthopedics Board Review 2026: High-Yield MCQs (Set 12) - Figure 57

. Osgood-Schlatter disease
. Patellar tendon rupture
. Posterior cruciate ligament rupture
. Overlengthened hamstrings
. Tibial tubercle growth arrest

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibial tubercle growth arrest


Explanation

The radiograph shows a recurvatum deformity of the proximal tibia with growth arrest of the tibial tubercle apophysis. This deformity has been described in association with femoral shaft fractures in children and has been attributed to a clinically silent, concommitant injury to the proximal tibial physes and also to iatrogenic injury associated with a proximal tibial traction pin. Overlengthened hamstrings and rupture of the posterior cruciate ligament may lead to knee hyperextension; however, these problems should not cause bone deformity. Osgood-Schlatter disease occurs when growth is nearly complete and usually leads to prominence of the tibial tubercle. Patellar tendon rupture is rare in children and would not cause this deformity unless the repair was performed with screws across the apophysis. Hresko MT, Kasser JR: Physeal arrest about the knee associated with non-physeal injuries of the lower extremity. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1989;71:698-703.

Question 2374

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 6-year-old boy sustains a widely displaced, extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture. On presentation, his hand is pink and warm, with a capillary refill of 2 seconds, but the radial pulse is not palpable. Following closed reduction and percutaneous pinning in the operating room, the hand remains pink and well-perfused, but the radial pulse remains absent. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Immediate vascular surgery consultation for exploration
. Removal of the pins and open reduction via an anterior approach
. CT angiography of the upper extremity
. Observation and hospital admission for 24-48 hours
. Exploration of the brachial plexus and brachial artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation and hospital admission for 24-48 hours


Explanation

In the setting of a pediatric supracondylar humerus fracture with a 'pulseless, pink' hand, current guidelines support closed reduction and percutaneous pinning. If the hand remains pink and well-perfused (capillary refill < 2 seconds) post-reduction, the collateral circulation is sufficient. Observation is appropriate without immediate vascular exploration. Vascular exploration is indicated for a 'pulseless, white' (ischemic) hand that does not improve after reduction.

Question 2375

Topic: 4. Pediatrics

A 6-year-old boy sustains a completely displaced extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture. On examination, the hand is pink and warm, with brisk capillary refill, but the radial pulse is not palpable. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Observation with elevation and splinting for 24 hours
. Arteriogram to evaluate for intimal tear
. Immediate exploration of the brachial artery
. Urgent closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
. Magnetic resonance angiography of the upper extremity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urgent closed reduction and percutaneous pinning


Explanation

In a child with a displaced supracondylar humerus fracture and a 'pulseless, pink' hand, the limb is adequately perfused through collateral circulation. The most appropriate next step is urgent closed reduction and percutaneous pinning, as the pulse frequently returns following anatomic reduction. Vascular exploration is indicated if the hand becomes or remains poorly perfused (white and cool) after reduction.

Question 2376

Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine
A 6-year-old boy sustains a completely displaced, extension-type Gartland type III supracondylar humerus fracture. Prior to operative intervention, a thorough neurologic examination reveals that he is unable to actively flex the interphalangeal joint of his thumb and the distal interphalangeal joint of his index finger. Which of the following nerves has most likely been injured?
. Radial nerve
. Ulnar nerve
. Anterior interosseous nerve (AIN)
. Posterior interosseous nerve (PIN)
. Musculocutaneous nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior interosseous nerve (AIN)


Explanation

The patient demonstrates an inability to flex the interphalangeal joint of the thumb (innervated by the flexor pollicis longus) and the distal interphalangeal joint of the index finger (innervated by the flexor digitorum profundus). This motor deficit, often tested by asking the patient to make an 'A-OK' sign, is indicative of an anterior interosseous nerve (AIN) palsy. The AIN is a branch of the median nerve and is the most commonly injured nerve in pediatric extension-type supracondylar humerus fractures.

Question 2377

Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine
A 6-year-old boy presents with a Gartland type III extension-type supracondylar humerus fracture. On examination, the radial pulse is absent, but the hand is warm and pink with brisk capillary refill. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Emergent CT angiogram of the upper extremity
. Immediate open vascular exploration via an anterior approach
. Urgent closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
. Observation and admission for 24 hours
. Prophylactic forearm fasciotomies

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Urgent closed reduction and percutaneous pinning


Explanation

A 'pulseless but pink' (well-perfused) hand following a displaced pediatric supracondylar humerus fracture indicates adequate collateral circulation. The initial treatment is urgent closed reduction and pinning to relieve pressure on the brachial artery.

Question 2378

Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine

In the Lenke classification of adolescent idiopathic scoliosis, a lumbar curve is considered a 'structural' minor curve if it bends out to what minimum Cobb angle on supine side-bending radiographs?

. 10 degrees
. 15 degrees
. 20 degrees
. 25 degrees
. 30 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 25 degrees


Explanation

In the Lenke classification, a minor curve is structural if it has a residual Cobb angle of 25 degrees or greater on supine lateral bending radiographs, or if there is kyphosis of at least +20 degrees.

Question 2379

Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine

A 14-year-old female with Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis has a right thoracic curve. She is Risser 0 and pre-menarchal. Her curve measures 35 degrees. What is the most appropriate treatment?

. Observation with serial radiographs every 6 months
. Physical therapy and core strengthening
. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) bracing
. Posterior spinal fusion
. Anterior spinal tethering

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) bracing


Explanation

TLSO bracing is indicated for skeletally immature patients (Risser 0-2) with progressive curves measuring between 25 and 40 degrees to halt curve progression.

Question 2380

Topic: Pediatric Upper Extremity & Spine

A 13-year-old premenarchal girl (Risser 0) has a right thoracic curve measuring 32 degrees. What is the most appropriate management?

. Observation with radiographs in 6 months
. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) bracing for 8 hours per day
. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) bracing for 16-23 hours per day
. Posterior spinal fusion
. Anterior spinal tethering

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thoracolumbosacral orthosis (TLSO) bracing for 16-23 hours per day


Explanation

Bracing is indicated for skeletally immature patients (Risser 0-2) with curves between 25 and 45 degrees. A dose-response relationship exists, with 16-23 hours per day providing the most effective curve progression prevention.