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Question 941

Topic: Pediatric Hip

An 11-year-old boy presents with a unilateral stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). His medical history is significant for panhypopituitarism, for which he receives growth hormone replacement. After treating the affected hip, what is the most appropriate management for the asymptomatic contralateral hip?

. Observation with serial radiographs every 6 months
. Non-weight bearing for 6 weeks
. Spica cast immobilization
. Epiphysiodesis
. Prophylactic in situ percutaneous pinning

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation with serial radiographs every 6 months


Explanation

Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip is highly recommended in patients with endocrine disorders (such as hypopituitarism or hypothyroidism) or renal failure. These patients have a significantly higher risk of developing bilateral SCFE compared to idiopathic cases.

Question 942

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 14-month-old girl presents with a painless limp since she began walking. Radiographs demonstrate a dislocated left hip. On the AP pelvis radiograph, displacement of the femoral head lateral to which of the following radiographic lines indicates abnormal lateralization?

. Shenton's line
. Hilgenreiner's line
. Klein's line
. Perkins' line
. Southwick angle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Shenton's line


Explanation

Perkins' line is drawn vertically downwards from the lateral edge of the acetabulum, perpendicular to Hilgenreiner's line. In a normal hip, the femoral head should sit entirely in the inferomedial quadrant created by these intersecting lines; lateral displacement crosses Perkins' line.

Question 943

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 12-year-old boy with a BMI in the 98th percentile presents with a 3-month history of ill-defined knee pain. The knee examination is unremarkable, but the affected hip exhibits obligate external rotation during passive flexion. Which radiographic finding on the AP pelvis is most characteristic of this condition?

. Disruption of Shenton's line
. Increased alpha angle
. The line of Klein does not intersect the lateral epiphysis
. Decreased neck-shaft angle
. Widening of the teardrop distance

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Disruption of Shenton's line


Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for a stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE), demonstrating the Drehmann sign. Radiographically, Trethowan's sign is positive when the line of Klein (drawn along the superior femoral neck) fails to intersect the lateral aspect of the femoral epiphysis.

Question 944

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 2-year-old girl with neglected developmental dysplasia of the hip is scheduled for an open reduction via an anterior (Smith-Petersen) approach. Which of the following structures is NOT considered a primary anatomic obstacle to reduction in this condition?

. Iliopsoas tendon
. Gluteus medius
. Pulvinar
. Ligamentum teres
. Transverse acetabular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliopsoas tendon


Explanation

Primary obstacles to reduction in DDH include an inverted limbus, tight iliopsoas tendon, hypertrophied ligamentum teres, fibrofatty pulvinar, constricted inferior capsule, and a contracted transverse acetabular ligament. The gluteus medius is not an obstacle to concentric reduction.

Question 945

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 14-year-old girl is 6 months post-operative from in situ pinning of a stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). She now presents with a stiff, painful hip. Examination reveals significant global restriction of range of motion. Radiographs demonstrate severe joint space narrowing, but the hardware is well-seated without joint penetration. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Avascular necrosis
. Septic arthritis
. Heterotopic ossification
. Chondrolysis
. Implant allergy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avascular necrosis


Explanation

Chondrolysis is a severe complication of SCFE characterized by acute cartilage necrosis, presenting with a painful, stiff hip and diffuse joint space narrowing on radiographs. While unrecognized pin penetration is a known cause, chondrolysis can also occur idiopathically after SCFE.

Question 946

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 4-week-old female infant, born breech, has a normal clinical hip examination. A screening ultrasound reveals an alpha angle of 45 degrees and a beta angle of 65 degrees. Based on the Graf classification, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Application of a Pavlik harness
. Reassurance and discharge from the clinic
. Immediate closed reduction and spica casting
. Open reduction via an anterior approach
. Observation with a repeat ultrasound in 3 months

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Application of a Pavlik harness


Explanation

An alpha angle of 45 degrees in a 4-week-old represents a Graf Type IIc or worse (alpha < 50 degrees), indicating significant dysplasia. Treatment with a Pavlik harness is indicated to promote proper acetabular development.

Question 947

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 9-month-old infant is undergoing a closed reduction and spica casting for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). Intraoperatively, the surgeon establishes Ramsey's "safe zone" to minimize the risk of complications. This safe zone is defined by the arc of motion between the angle of maximum abduction and the angle of:

. Maximum flexion
. Minimum abduction before redislocation
. Maximum extension
. Maximum internal rotation
. Minimum flexion before redislocation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Maximum flexion


Explanation

Ramsey's safe zone for closed reduction in DDH is defined as the arc between the angle of maximum abduction (limited by adductor tightness) and the angle of minimum abduction where the hip redislocates. Maintaining the hip within this zone, while avoiding abduction greater than 60 degrees, minimizes the risk of avascular necrosis.

Question 948

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 13-year-old obese boy presents with severe left hip pain and inability to bear weight after a minor fall 2 days ago. Radiographs show a posterior and inferior displacement of the proximal femoral epiphysis. According to the Loder classification, what is the primary determinant of a poor prognosis in this patient?

. Degree of slip angle
. Duration of symptoms
. Inability to ambulate with or without crutches
. Body mass index
. Presence of an endocrine disorder

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Degree of slip angle


Explanation

The Loder classification defines unstable SCFE by the inability to ambulate even with crutches. Unstable slips have a significantly higher risk of avascular necrosis (up to nearly 50%) compared to stable slips.

Question 949

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 12-year-old boy with chronic renal failure presents with a stable right slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Which of the following is the strongest indication for prophylactic pinning of the contralateral, asymptomatic hip in this patient?

. Patient's age
. Severity of the right slip
. Presence of chronic renal failure
. Patient's BMI
. Presence of a limp

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patient's age


Explanation

Endocrine disorders and chronic renal failure are strong risk factors for bilateral SCFE. Prophylactic fixation of the contralateral hip is highly recommended in these populations due to the high risk of subsequent slip.

Question 950

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 14-year-old boy complains of vague right knee pain for 3 months. Hip examination reveals that as the right hip is passively flexed, it obligately moves into external rotation and abduction. This clinical finding is most consistent with which of the following diagnoses?

. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)
. Femoroacetabular impingement
. Developmental dysplasia of the hip
. Transient synovitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease


Explanation

The Drehmann sign is the obligate external rotation and abduction of the hip during passive flexion. It is a classic physical examination finding in patients with a slipped capital femoral epiphysis.

Question 951

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 15-year-old boy is evaluated for worsening hip stiffness and pain 6 months after in situ pinning of a slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Radiographs reveal concentric narrowing of the hip joint space to less than 3 mm and subchondral sclerosis. What is the most likely cause of these findings?

. Avascular necrosis
. Chondrolysis
. Hardware failure
. Septic arthritis
. Heterotopic ossification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avascular necrosis


Explanation

Chondrolysis is characterized by acute cartilage destruction and concentric joint space narrowing (typically <3 mm) following SCFE. It presents with stiffness and pain and is heavily associated with unrecognized intra-articular hardware penetration.

Question 952

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A newborn girl with arthrogryposis multiplex congenita is found to have bilateral rigid, high-riding hip dislocations. Unlike typical developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH), what is the most appropriate initial management for her hip pathology?

. Immediate application of a Pavlik harness
. Observation, as treatment is often delayed or individualized based on walking potential
. Serial long leg casting
. Immediate closed reduction under anesthesia
. Bilateral proximal femoral focal osteotomies

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate application of a Pavlik harness


Explanation

Teratologic hip dislocations in conditions like arthrogryposis are extremely rigid and do not respond to a Pavlik harness. Management is complex and often delayed until walking potential is clearer, frequently requiring open reduction later in life.

Question 953

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 12-year-old boy presents with an acute, unstable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). The surgeon is planning surgical fixation. Which of the following maneuvers is strictly contraindicated during the surgical positioning and fixation of this patient?

. Gentle internal rotation to facilitate pin placement
. Incision of the joint capsule to release a hematoma
. Forceful closed reduction to achieve an anatomic alignment
. Use of a single cannulated screw
. Placement of the screw strictly in the center-center position

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gentle internal rotation to facilitate pin placement


Explanation

Forceful or non-gentle closed reduction of an unstable SCFE is contraindicated as it significantly increases the risk of avascular necrosis (AVN) by disrupting the tenuous epiphyseal blood supply. Most surgeons accept the deformity or allow only incidental reduction.

Question 954

Topic: Pediatric Hip

During a closed reduction of a developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) under general anesthesia, an arthrogram is performed. The hip reduces in flexion and abduction but re-dislocates when adducted past 40 degrees of abduction. The hip cannot be safely abducted past 55 degrees due to significant adductor tension. Which of the following best describes this situation?

. The safe zone of Ramsey is wide and adequate for spica casting.
. The safe zone of Ramsey is too narrow, requiring an adductor tenotomy.
. The safe zone of Ramsey dictates that an open reduction is mandatory.
. The hip should be casted in 60 degrees of abduction.
. A Pavlik harness should be applied postoperatively.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The safe zone of Ramsey is wide and adequate for spica casting.


Explanation

The "safe zone of Ramsey" is the arc between the angle of re-dislocation and the angle of maximal safe abduction. A narrow safe zone (<20 degrees) increases the risk of AVN if immobilized in extreme abduction; performing an adductor tenotomy widens the safe zone.

Question 955

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 6-week-old female infant is currently being treated with a Pavlik harness for Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH). At her 2-week follow-up, the ultrasound reveals that the left hip remains dislocated. During the physical examination, you note that she has an absent patellar reflex on the left side and decreased spontaneous extension of the left knee. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Adjust the anterior straps to increase hip flexion
. Adjust the posterior straps to increase hip abduction
. Discontinue the Pavlik harness and observe for neurologic recovery
. Proceed immediately to closed reduction and spica casting
. Obtain an urgent MRI of the lumbar spine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adjust the anterior straps to increase hip flexion


Explanation

The infant has developed a femoral nerve palsy, a known complication of hyperflexion in a Pavlik harness. The most appropriate initial management is to discontinue the harness to allow for neurologic recovery, which typically resolves spontaneously.

Question 956

Topic: Pediatric Hip

During an open reduction of a late-presenting Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH) via a medial (Ludloff) approach, several anatomical structures blocking reduction can be accessed. Which of the following pathological obstacles to reduction CANNOT be adequately addressed through this approach?

. Iliopsoas tendon
. Transverse acetabular ligament
. Ligamentum teres
. Redundant superior joint capsule
. Hypertrophied pulvinar

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliopsoas tendon


Explanation

The medial approach accesses the inferior and medial obstacles to reduction, including the iliopsoas, transverse acetabular ligament, and ligamentum teres. It cannot safely access or address a redundant superior capsule or an inverted limbus, which require an anterior approach.

Question 957

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 4-week-old female infant with a breech presentation history is referred for a developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) ultrasound. When obtaining a standard Graf coronal view, the sonographer must ensure a standard plane is captured. Which bony landmark must be clearly visualized to confirm a true standard coronal view?

. The femoral head completely centered in the acetabulum
. The greater trochanter
. The lower limb of the bony ilium
. The pubic symphysis
. The anterior inferior iliac spine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The femoral head completely centered in the acetabulum


Explanation

To calculate Graf alpha and beta angles accurately, a true standard coronal plane must be achieved. The three essential sonographic landmarks required are the lower limb of the bony ilium (straight edge), the labrum, and the osseous margin of the acetabular roof.

Question 958

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 3-month-old female infant is being treated with a Pavlik harness for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). During her 2-week follow-up, the parents report she has stopped kicking her left leg. On examination, there is an absence of active knee extension on the left, but she flexes the hip and moves the toes spontaneously. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Adjust the anterior straps to increase hip flexion
. Adjust the posterior straps to increase hip abduction
. Obtain an immediate ultrasound to rule out joint effusion
. Discontinue the Pavlik harness immediately
. Transition to closed reduction and spica casting under anesthesia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adjust the anterior straps to increase hip flexion


Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for a femoral nerve palsy, a known complication of extreme hip flexion in a Pavlik harness. The most appropriate initial management is to discontinue the harness to allow the nerve palsy to resolve, which typically occurs within a few days to weeks.

Question 959

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 24-month-old girl presents with a painless limp. Examination demonstrates a positive Trendelenburg sign on the left.

Radiographs confirm a dislocated left hip with a false acetabulum and severe acetabular dysplasia. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

. Pavlik harness application
. Rigid abduction orthosis
. Closed reduction and spica casting
. Open reduction and pelvic osteotomy
. Femoral varus derotational osteotomy alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pavlik harness application


Explanation

In a child older than 18-24 months presenting with an untreated, dislocated DDH, open reduction is almost always necessary due to adaptive soft tissue contractures. A concomitant pelvic osteotomy (e.g., Salter) is required to correct the secondary acetabular dysplasia.

Question 960

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 10-year-old boy presents with a stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) of the right hip. Under which of the following conditions is prophylactic pinning of the contralateral, asymptomatic hip most strongly indicated?

. Obesity (BMI > 95th percentile)
. An underlying endocrine disorder, such as hypothyroidism
. A grade I slip on the initial side
. Age older than 14 years at presentation
. Male gender

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obesity (BMI > 95th percentile)


Explanation

Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip in SCFE is highly recommended for patients with underlying endocrine disorders (e.g., hypothyroidism, renal osteodystrophy) or prior radiation, due to the exceptionally high risk of bilateral involvement.