This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Pediatric Hip. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 741
Topic: Pediatric Hip
An 8-year-old boy presents with bilateral slipped capital femoral epiphyses. His height is in the 5th percentile and his weight is in the 90th percentile. Which of the following laboratory studies is most critical in evaluating the underlying etiology of his condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4
Explanation
SCFE presenting in children under 10 years of age, or those with atypical body habitus (short stature), strongly suggests an underlying endocrinopathy. Hypothyroidism is the most common endocrine disorder associated with atypical SCFE.
Question 742
Topic: Pediatric Hip
In the treatment of developmental dysplasia of the hip with a Pavlik harness or spica cast, maintaining the hip in excessive abduction significantly increases the risk of which of the following complications?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
Explanation
Excessive abduction during DDH treatment places tension on the medial circumflex femoral artery against the margin of the acetabulum or iliopsoas. This vascular compromise leads to avascular necrosis of the femoral head.
Question 743
Topic: Pediatric Hip
Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip is most strongly indicated in which of the following patients presenting with a unilateral slipped capital femoral epiphysis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A 10-year-old boy with chronic kidney disease on dialysis
Explanation
Prophylactic contralateral pinning is indicated in patients with underlying metabolic or endocrine disorders, such as renal osteodystrophy or hypothyroidism. These patients have a high risk of developing a contralateral slip (up to 100% in some metabolic conditions).
Question 744
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 4-week-old female infant is undergoing treatment for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) with a Pavlik harness. During a follow-up visit, the mother reports that the infant is no longer actively extending her knee on the affected side. Examination confirms absent active knee extension, though patellar reflexes are intact. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Adjust the anterior straps to decrease hip flexion
Explanation
Femoral nerve palsy is a known complication of Pavlik harness treatment, typically caused by excessive hip flexion. The initial management is to adjust the anterior straps to decrease the degree of hip flexion or temporarily discontinue the harness until nerve function recovers.
Question 745
Topic: Pediatric Hip
When evaluating coronal ultrasound images for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) in a 6-week-old infant, the alpha angle is routinely measured. Which anatomic structure serves as the primary landmark for determining this angle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Bony acetabular roof
Explanation
The alpha angle on a developmental hip ultrasound evaluates the bony acetabular roof. It is formed by the intersection of the baseline (iliac wing) and the bony roof line; an angle greater than 60 degrees is considered normal.
Question 746
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 12-year-old boy presents with an acute on chronic slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) of the left hip. Under which of the following circumstances is prophylactic in-situ pinning of the contralateral, asymptomatic hip most strongly indicated?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. If the patient has hypothyroidism, renal osteodystrophy, or is < 10 years old
Explanation
Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip is highly recommended in patients with an elevated risk of bilateral disease. Risk factors for bilateral SCFE include underlying endocrinopathies (like hypothyroidism), metabolic disorders (renal osteodystrophy), or presentation at a young age (<10 years).
Question 747
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 13-year-old boy with a BMI of 35 presents with a 2-day history of severe right hip pain and absolute inability to bear weight, even with crutches. According to the Loder classification, what is his approximate risk of developing avascular necrosis (AVN) following treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Up to 50%
Explanation
Inability to bear weight defines an unstable SCFE according to the Loder classification. Unstable slips carry a significantly higher risk of avascular necrosis (AVN), historically reported to be up to 47-50%.
Question 748
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 14-year-old boy is evaluated 6 months after an uncomplicated in-situ percutaneous pinning for a stable SCFE. He now reports worsening hip pain and demonstrates a global loss of range of motion in the affected hip. Joint space narrowing is evident on radiographs. What is the most likely etiology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Unrecognized pin penetration into the hip joint leading to chondrolysis
Explanation
Global loss of motion and joint space narrowing after SCFE pinning strongly suggests chondrolysis. The most common iatrogenic cause of chondrolysis in this setting is unrecognized prominent hardware penetrating into the articular surface.
Question 749
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 6-month-old girl has been treated with a Pavlik harness for 4 weeks due to a completely dislocated left hip (Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip). Serial ultrasounds demonstrate that the hip remains persistently dislocated despite confirmed appropriate strap tension and compliance. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Closed reduction, arthrogram, and spica casting
Explanation
Failure to achieve reduction in a Pavlik harness after 3-4 weeks is an indication to abandon the harness to prevent 'Pavlik harness disease' (posterior acetabular wear). The most appropriate next step is a closed reduction with an arthrogram and spica casting.
Question 750
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 12-year-old boy presents with a unilateral stable Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE) of the left hip. Which of the following patient factors is the strongest absolute indication for prophylactic in situ pinning of the asymptomatic right hip?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Presence of a diagnosed endocrine disorder such as hypothyroidism
Explanation
Endocrine disorders (such as hypothyroidism, growth hormone deficiency, or renal osteodystrophy) strongly predispose patients to bilateral SCFE, often sequentially. Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip is highly recommended in these patients.
Question 751
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 2-year-old girl is brought to the clinic for a painless limp. She has a positive Trendelenburg gait. Radiographs show a dislocated right hip with a false acetabulum and hypoplastic femoral nucleus. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this late-presenting developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Open reduction, capsulorrhaphy, and likely pelvic osteotomy
Explanation
In a child older than 18 months presenting with a dislocated hip, closed reduction is rarely successful. Open reduction combined with a pelvic osteotomy (and sometimes a femoral shortening osteotomy) is required to achieve and maintain a stable, concentric reduction.
Question 752
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 13-year-old girl with a high BMI presents to the emergency department with acute right hip pain after a minor slip. She cannot bear weight on the right leg, even with the assistance of crutches. Radiographs confirm a slipped capital femoral epiphysis. Compared to a stable slip, this patient is at significantly higher risk for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Avascular necrosis (AVN)
Explanation
The inability to bear weight even with crutches defines an unstable SCFE. Unstable slips carry a significantly higher risk of avascular necrosis (AVN), historically reported between 20% to 50%.
Question 753
Topic: Pediatric Hip
During an open reduction for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) via an anterior approach, several structures are identified that may block concentric reduction. Which of the following is considered an EXTRA-articular obstacle to reduction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Iliopsoas tendon
Explanation
The iliopsoas tendon is an extra-articular block to reduction that compresses the capsule into an hourglass shape. The pulvinar, inverted limbus, transverse acetabular ligament, and ligamentum teres are intra-articular obstacles.
Question 754
Topic: Pediatric Hip
An 11-year-old overweight boy complains of left knee pain. Knee radiographs are unremarkable. An AP pelvis radiograph is obtained.
A line drawn along the superior margin of the left femoral neck fails to intersect any portion of the femoral epiphysis. What is the name of this radiographic line?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Klein's line
Explanation
Klein's line is drawn along the superior edge of the femoral neck. In a normal hip, it should intersect the lateral portion of the femoral epiphysis. Failure to do so is highly suggestive of a Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE).
Question 755
Topic: Pediatric Hip
Which of the following surgical techniques is the most widely accepted standard to minimize the risk of complications when treating a typical stable Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. In situ fixation with a single central fully threaded screw
Explanation
The gold standard for a typical stable SCFE is in situ fixation using a single, central, partially or fully threaded screw. Forceful reduction increases the risk of AVN, and multiple pins increase the risk of chondrolysis and joint penetration without significant added biomechanical benefit.
Question 756
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 4-week-old female is placed in a Pavlik harness for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). Two weeks later, the parents report that the child has stopped kicking her right leg. On exam, there is an absent quadriceps reflex and no active knee extension. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Discontinue the harness and observe
Explanation
This patient has a femoral nerve palsy, the most common neurologic complication of the Pavlik harness, typically caused by hyperflexion. The harness should be discontinued and the patient observed; function almost always returns within a few weeks.
Question 757
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 13-year-old obese male presents with 2 days of severe left hip pain and an inability to bear weight after a minor fall. Radiographs show a severe slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). He is treated with an urgent gentle closed reduction and pinning. Which of the following is the most significant risk associated with this specific presentation and intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Avascular necrosis (AVN)
Explanation
This is an unstable SCFE, defined by the inability to bear weight even with crutches. Unstable slips, especially when treated with forceful or inadvertent closed reduction, carry a high risk of avascular necrosis (AVN), historically up to 47-50%.
Question 758
Topic: Pediatric Hip
An 18-month-old female presents with a waddling gait. Radiographs reveal a dislocated left hip with an acetabular index of 40 degrees. During the planned open reduction, which structure is considered the most inferior block to concentric reduction of the femoral head into the true acetabulum?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Transverse acetabular ligament
Explanation
Blocks to reduction in DDH include the pulvinar, ligamentum teres, inverted limbus, iliopsoas, and the transverse acetabular ligament. The transverse acetabular ligament spans the inferior acetabular notch and must often be incised or tensioned to allow concentric reduction.
Question 759
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 9-year-old boy presents with a unilateral stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). His height is in the 10th percentile and weight in the 90th percentile. Based on his age and body habitus, which of the following screening tests is most appropriate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4
Explanation
Patients presenting with SCFE under the age of 10 or over the age of 16, or those with atypical body habitus (e.g., short stature), should be evaluated for endocrine disorders. Hypothyroidism is the most common endocrine disorder associated with atypical SCFE.
Question 760
Topic: Pediatric Hip
A 6-month-old male with DDH undergoes a closed reduction and spica casting. A post-reduction MRI is obtained to confirm reduction. To minimize the risk of avascular necrosis (AVN), the hip must NOT be immobilized in which of the following excessive positions?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Excessive abduction > 60 degrees
Explanation
To minimize the risk of AVN, the hip should be immobilized in the 'human position' of roughly 90-100 degrees of flexion and moderate abduction. Excessive abduction (e.g., >60 degrees) significantly increases the tension on the medial circumflex femoral artery, leading to AVN.
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