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Question 741

Topic: Pediatric Hip

An 8-year-old boy presents with bilateral slipped capital femoral epiphyses. His height is in the 5th percentile and his weight is in the 90th percentile. Which of the following laboratory studies is most critical in evaluating the underlying etiology of his condition?

. Serum calcium and phosphate
. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4
. Growth hormone stimulation test
. Testosterone levels
. Hemoglobin A1c

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4


Explanation

SCFE presenting in children under 10 years of age, or those with atypical body habitus (short stature), strongly suggests an underlying endocrinopathy. Hypothyroidism is the most common endocrine disorder associated with atypical SCFE.

Question 742

Topic: Pediatric Hip

In the treatment of developmental dysplasia of the hip with a Pavlik harness or spica cast, maintaining the hip in excessive abduction significantly increases the risk of which of the following complications?

. Femoral nerve palsy
. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
. Inferior hip dislocation
. Acetabular dysplasia
. Coxa magna

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head


Explanation

Excessive abduction during DDH treatment places tension on the medial circumflex femoral artery against the margin of the acetabulum or iliopsoas. This vascular compromise leads to avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

Question 743

Topic: Pediatric Hip

Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip is most strongly indicated in which of the following patients presenting with a unilateral slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

. A 14-year-old boy with idiopathic SCFE and a BMI of 35
. A 12-year-old girl with idiopathic SCFE and open triradiate cartilages
. A 10-year-old boy with chronic kidney disease on dialysis
. A 15-year-old boy with a history of slipped capital femoral epiphysis in his older brother
. A 13-year-old girl with a stable SCFE and a Risser score of 1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A 10-year-old boy with chronic kidney disease on dialysis


Explanation

Prophylactic contralateral pinning is indicated in patients with underlying metabolic or endocrine disorders, such as renal osteodystrophy or hypothyroidism. These patients have a high risk of developing a contralateral slip (up to 100% in some metabolic conditions).

Question 744

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 4-week-old female infant is undergoing treatment for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) with a Pavlik harness. During a follow-up visit, the mother reports that the infant is no longer actively extending her knee on the affected side. Examination confirms absent active knee extension, though patellar reflexes are intact. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Discontinue the harness and place the infant in a hip spica cast
. Adjust the posterior straps to decrease hip abduction
. Adjust the anterior straps to decrease hip flexion
. Obtain an immediate MRI of the lumbar spine
. Perform a closed reduction in the operating room

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adjust the anterior straps to decrease hip flexion


Explanation

Femoral nerve palsy is a known complication of Pavlik harness treatment, typically caused by excessive hip flexion. The initial management is to adjust the anterior straps to decrease the degree of hip flexion or temporarily discontinue the harness until nerve function recovers.

Question 745

Topic: Pediatric Hip

When evaluating coronal ultrasound images for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) in a 6-week-old infant, the alpha angle is routinely measured. Which anatomic structure serves as the primary landmark for determining this angle?

. Triradiate cartilage
. Bony acetabular roof
. Cartilaginous labrum
. Femoral head ossific nucleus
. Transverse acetabular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bony acetabular roof


Explanation

The alpha angle on a developmental hip ultrasound evaluates the bony acetabular roof. It is formed by the intersection of the baseline (iliac wing) and the bony roof line; an angle greater than 60 degrees is considered normal.

Question 746

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 12-year-old boy presents with an acute on chronic slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) of the left hip. Under which of the following circumstances is prophylactic in-situ pinning of the contralateral, asymptomatic hip most strongly indicated?

. Always, regardless of patient age or endocrine status
. If the patient has a BMI > 95th percentile
. If the patient has hypothyroidism, renal osteodystrophy, or is < 10 years old
. If the left hip has a Southwick slip angle > 50 degrees
. If the patient requires an open subcapital realignment (modified Dunn procedure)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. If the patient has hypothyroidism, renal osteodystrophy, or is < 10 years old


Explanation

Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip is highly recommended in patients with an elevated risk of bilateral disease. Risk factors for bilateral SCFE include underlying endocrinopathies (like hypothyroidism), metabolic disorders (renal osteodystrophy), or presentation at a young age (<10 years).

Question 747

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 13-year-old boy with a BMI of 35 presents with a 2-day history of severe right hip pain and absolute inability to bear weight, even with crutches. According to the Loder classification, what is his approximate risk of developing avascular necrosis (AVN) following treatment?

. Less than 5%
. 10 to 15%
. 20 to 25%
. Up to 50%
. 100%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Up to 50%


Explanation

Inability to bear weight defines an unstable SCFE according to the Loder classification. Unstable slips carry a significantly higher risk of avascular necrosis (AVN), historically reported to be up to 47-50%.

Question 748

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 14-year-old boy is evaluated 6 months after an uncomplicated in-situ percutaneous pinning for a stable SCFE. He now reports worsening hip pain and demonstrates a global loss of range of motion in the affected hip. Joint space narrowing is evident on radiographs. What is the most likely etiology?

. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
. Unrecognized pin penetration into the hip joint leading to chondrolysis
. Development of an acute low-grade septic arthritis
. Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement
. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis of the contralateral hip

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Unrecognized pin penetration into the hip joint leading to chondrolysis


Explanation

Global loss of motion and joint space narrowing after SCFE pinning strongly suggests chondrolysis. The most common iatrogenic cause of chondrolysis in this setting is unrecognized prominent hardware penetrating into the articular surface.

Question 749

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 6-month-old girl has been treated with a Pavlik harness for 4 weeks due to a completely dislocated left hip (Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip). Serial ultrasounds demonstrate that the hip remains persistently dislocated despite confirmed appropriate strap tension and compliance. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Continue the Pavlik harness for an additional 4 weeks
. Transition to a rigid abduction orthosis for 4 weeks
. Closed reduction, arthrogram, and spica casting
. Open reduction and pelvic osteotomy
. Observation until age 1 year, followed by open reduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction, arthrogram, and spica casting


Explanation

Failure to achieve reduction in a Pavlik harness after 3-4 weeks is an indication to abandon the harness to prevent 'Pavlik harness disease' (posterior acetabular wear). The most appropriate next step is a closed reduction with an arthrogram and spica casting.

Question 750

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 12-year-old boy presents with a unilateral stable Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE) of the left hip. Which of the following patient factors is the strongest absolute indication for prophylactic in situ pinning of the asymptomatic right hip?

. Body Mass Index (BMI) greater than the 95th percentile
. Male sex
. Initial slip angle greater than 50 degrees
. Presence of a diagnosed endocrine disorder such as hypothyroidism
. Open triradiate cartilage on the affected side

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presence of a diagnosed endocrine disorder such as hypothyroidism


Explanation

Endocrine disorders (such as hypothyroidism, growth hormone deficiency, or renal osteodystrophy) strongly predispose patients to bilateral SCFE, often sequentially. Prophylactic pinning of the contralateral hip is highly recommended in these patients.

Question 751

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 2-year-old girl is brought to the clinic for a painless limp. She has a positive Trendelenburg gait. Radiographs show a dislocated right hip with a false acetabulum and hypoplastic femoral nucleus. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this late-presenting developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)?

. Pavlik harness trial
. Closed reduction and spica casting
. Open reduction, capsulorrhaphy, and likely pelvic osteotomy
. Varus derotational osteotomy (VDRO) alone
. Observation until age 4 to allow for capsular stretching

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction, capsulorrhaphy, and likely pelvic osteotomy


Explanation

In a child older than 18 months presenting with a dislocated hip, closed reduction is rarely successful. Open reduction combined with a pelvic osteotomy (and sometimes a femoral shortening osteotomy) is required to achieve and maintain a stable, concentric reduction.

Question 752

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 13-year-old girl with a high BMI presents to the emergency department with acute right hip pain after a minor slip. She cannot bear weight on the right leg, even with the assistance of crutches. Radiographs confirm a slipped capital femoral epiphysis. Compared to a stable slip, this patient is at significantly higher risk for which of the following complications?

. Chondrolysis
. Avascular necrosis (AVN)
. Contralateral SCFE
. Premature physeal closure
. Nonunion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avascular necrosis (AVN)


Explanation

The inability to bear weight even with crutches defines an unstable SCFE. Unstable slips carry a significantly higher risk of avascular necrosis (AVN), historically reported between 20% to 50%.

Question 753

Topic: Pediatric Hip

During an open reduction for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) via an anterior approach, several structures are identified that may block concentric reduction. Which of the following is considered an EXTRA-articular obstacle to reduction?

. Ligamentum teres
. Inverted limbus
. Pulvinar
. Transverse acetabular ligament
. Iliopsoas tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliopsoas tendon


Explanation

The iliopsoas tendon is an extra-articular block to reduction that compresses the capsule into an hourglass shape. The pulvinar, inverted limbus, transverse acetabular ligament, and ligamentum teres are intra-articular obstacles.

Question 754

Topic: Pediatric Hip

An 11-year-old overweight boy complains of left knee pain. Knee radiographs are unremarkable. An AP pelvis radiograph is obtained.

A line drawn along the superior margin of the left femoral neck fails to intersect any portion of the femoral epiphysis. What is the name of this radiographic line?

. Shenton's line
. Hilgenreiner's line
. Perkin's line
. Klein's line
. Skinner's line

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Klein's line


Explanation

Klein's line is drawn along the superior edge of the femoral neck. In a normal hip, it should intersect the lateral portion of the femoral epiphysis. Failure to do so is highly suggestive of a Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE).

Question 755

Topic: Pediatric Hip

Which of the following surgical techniques is the most widely accepted standard to minimize the risk of complications when treating a typical stable Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)?

. Forceful closed reduction to anatomic alignment followed by pinning
. In situ fixation with a single central fully threaded screw
. In situ fixation with three parallel pins to maximize rotational control
. Immediate subtrochanteric derotational osteotomy
. Open reduction via surgical dislocation (Dunn procedure) for all stable slips

Correct Answer & Explanation

. In situ fixation with a single central fully threaded screw


Explanation

The gold standard for a typical stable SCFE is in situ fixation using a single, central, partially or fully threaded screw. Forceful reduction increases the risk of AVN, and multiple pins increase the risk of chondrolysis and joint penetration without significant added biomechanical benefit.

Question 756

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 4-week-old female is placed in a Pavlik harness for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). Two weeks later, the parents report that the child has stopped kicking her right leg. On exam, there is an absent quadriceps reflex and no active knee extension. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Continue harness but loosen the anterior straps
. Discontinue the harness and observe
. Switch to a rigid abduction orthosis
. Proceed to closed reduction and spica casting
. Perform immediate ultrasound to check for femoral head AVN

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Discontinue the harness and observe


Explanation

This patient has a femoral nerve palsy, the most common neurologic complication of the Pavlik harness, typically caused by hyperflexion. The harness should be discontinued and the patient observed; function almost always returns within a few weeks.

Question 757

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 13-year-old obese male presents with 2 days of severe left hip pain and an inability to bear weight after a minor fall. Radiographs show a severe slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). He is treated with an urgent gentle closed reduction and pinning. Which of the following is the most significant risk associated with this specific presentation and intervention?

. Chondrolysis
. Avascular necrosis (AVN)
. Femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)
. Contralateral slip
. Septic arthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avascular necrosis (AVN)


Explanation

This is an unstable SCFE, defined by the inability to bear weight even with crutches. Unstable slips, especially when treated with forceful or inadvertent closed reduction, carry a high risk of avascular necrosis (AVN), historically up to 47-50%.

Question 758

Topic: Pediatric Hip

An 18-month-old female presents with a waddling gait. Radiographs reveal a dislocated left hip with an acetabular index of 40 degrees. During the planned open reduction, which structure is considered the most inferior block to concentric reduction of the femoral head into the true acetabulum?

. Inverted limbus
. Ligamentum teres
. Pulvinar
. Transverse acetabular ligament
. Iliopsoas tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transverse acetabular ligament


Explanation

Blocks to reduction in DDH include the pulvinar, ligamentum teres, inverted limbus, iliopsoas, and the transverse acetabular ligament. The transverse acetabular ligament spans the inferior acetabular notch and must often be incised or tensioned to allow concentric reduction.

Question 759

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 9-year-old boy presents with a unilateral stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). His height is in the 10th percentile and weight in the 90th percentile. Based on his age and body habitus, which of the following screening tests is most appropriate?

. Growth hormone levels
. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4
. Serum calcium and phosphate
. Hemoglobin A1c
. Testosterone levels

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4


Explanation

Patients presenting with SCFE under the age of 10 or over the age of 16, or those with atypical body habitus (e.g., short stature), should be evaluated for endocrine disorders. Hypothyroidism is the most common endocrine disorder associated with atypical SCFE.

Question 760

Topic: Pediatric Hip

A 6-month-old male with DDH undergoes a closed reduction and spica casting. A post-reduction MRI is obtained to confirm reduction. To minimize the risk of avascular necrosis (AVN), the hip must NOT be immobilized in which of the following excessive positions?

. Excessive flexion > 120 degrees
. Excessive abduction > 60 degrees
. Excessive adduction > 10 degrees
. Excessive internal rotation > 30 degrees
. Excessive external rotation > 45 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excessive abduction > 60 degrees


Explanation

To minimize the risk of AVN, the hip should be immobilized in the 'human position' of roughly 90-100 degrees of flexion and moderate abduction. Excessive abduction (e.g., >60 degrees) significantly increases the tension on the medial circumflex femoral artery, leading to AVN.