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Question 1961

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 62-year-old male with a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty presents with new-onset groin pain and swelling 6 years postoperatively. Aspiration yields fluid with markedly elevated cobalt levels and normal chromium levels. An MRI demonstrates a cystic pseudotumor. What is the most likely etiology of this patient's presentation?

. Adverse local tissue reaction from a metal-on-metal bearing
. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the head-neck taper
. Polyethylene wear debris leading to osteolysis
. Occult periprosthetic joint infection
. Aseptic loosening of the acetabular component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the head-neck taper


Explanation

In a metal-on-polyethylene THA, a pseudotumor coupled with elevated cobalt out of proportion to chromium indicates mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (trunnionosis) at the modular head-neck taper junction.

Question 1962

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During trialing of a primary total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon notes that the extension gap is perfectly balanced, but the knee is significantly tight in flexion. Which of the following technical adjustments is the most appropriate next step?

. Resect more distal femur
. Downsize the femoral component and use a thicker polyethylene liner
. Increase the posterior slope of the tibial cut
. Recut the proximal tibia with increased varus
. Upsize the femoral component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increase the posterior slope of the tibial cut


Explanation

A tight flexion gap with a balanced extension gap can be addressed by increasing the posterior slope of the tibial cut. Downsizing the femoral component (in an anterior referencing system) or releasing the PCL are also valid options.

Question 1963

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 75-year-old female sustains a periprosthetic femur fracture around a cemented total hip arthroplasty after a fall. Radiographs show a transverse fracture just distal to the tip of the stem. The stem is radiographically loose, but there is excellent diaphyseal bone stock. How is this fracture classified and best treated?

. Vancouver B1; treated with ORIF using locking plates and cables
. Vancouver B2; treated with revision using a long extensively porous-coated cementless stem
. Vancouver B3; treated with proximal femoral replacement
. Vancouver C; treated with ORIF using locking plates and cables
. Vancouver B2; treated with impaction bone grafting and a cemented stem

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vancouver B2; treated with revision using a long extensively porous-coated cementless stem


Explanation

A Vancouver B2 fracture involves a loose stem with adequate remaining bone stock. The gold standard treatment is revision arthroplasty bypassing the fracture site with a long, cementless, extensively porous-coated or fluted tapered modular stem.

Question 1964

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 66-year-old male presents 1 year after a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty complaining of a painful catching sensation when extending his knee from a seated position. On examination, a palpable 'pop' is felt at the anterior knee at roughly 35 degrees of flexion. What is the underlying cause?

. Medial collateral ligament laxity
. Aseptic loosening of the tibial baseplate
. Fibrous nodule formation at the superior pole of the patella
. Asymmetric polyethylene wear
. Patellar tendon rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fibrous nodule formation at the superior pole of the patella


Explanation

Patellar clunk syndrome occurs in posterior-stabilized TKAs due to the formation of a fibrous nodule at the superior pole of the patella. This nodule gets entrapped in the femoral intercondylar box and pops out as the knee extends.

Question 1965

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient presents with a painful total knee arthroplasty 2 years postoperatively. Synovial fluid aspiration reveals a white blood cell count of 4,500 cells/uL with 88% neutrophils. The synovial alpha-defensin test is positive, and serum CRP is 18 mg/L. According to the 2018 MSIS/ICM criteria, what is the diagnosis?

. Definitive periprosthetic joint infection
. Indeterminate for infection; requires repeat aspiration
. Aseptic loosening with inflammatory reactive fluid
. Crystal arthropathy, pending polarized microscopy
. Adverse local tissue reaction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Definitive periprosthetic joint infection


Explanation

Based on the 2018 Evidence-Based Validated Definition for PJI, the combination of elevated CRP, synovial WBC >3000, PMN >80%, and a positive alpha-defensin yields enough points to definitively diagnose a periprosthetic joint infection.

Question 1966

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
During a complex revision total hip arthroplasty, the surgeon identifies a complete structural separation of the ilium from the ischium and pubis. Which of the following terms best describes this specific pattern of acetabular bone loss?
. Paprosky Type I defect
. Paprosky Type IIIA defect
. Paprosky Type IIIB defect
. Pelvic discontinuity
. Protrusio acetabuli

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pelvic discontinuity


Explanation

Pelvic discontinuity is defined by a complete separation of the superior hemipelvis (ilium) from the inferior hemipelvis (ischium and pubis). It requires specialized fixation techniques, such as a cup-cage construct, custom triflange, or distraction plating.

Question 1967

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A patient suffers a recurrent anterior dislocation of their total hip arthroplasty, which was placed via a posterior approach. CT scan reveals an acetabular cup with 45 degrees of inclination and 30 degrees of anteversion. The femoral stem is placed in 20 degrees of anteversion. What is the primary cause of instability?

. Impingement due to excessive combined anteversion
. Insufficient posterior soft tissue repair
. Retroversion of the acetabular component
. Abductor musculature deficiency
. Excessive femoral offset

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Impingement due to excessive combined anteversion


Explanation

The combined anteversion in this patient is 50 degrees (30 cup + 20 stem), which is excessively high. High combined anteversion predisposes the hip to anterior dislocation, particularly in extension and external rotation, due to anterior uncoverage.

Question 1968

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Modern total hip arthroplasties utilize highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) to significantly reduce wear rates and subsequent osteolysis. Which manufacturing process is primarily responsible for inducing the cross-linking in the polyethylene?

. Electron beam or gamma irradiation
. The addition of Vitamin E (alpha-tocopherol)
. Decreasing the crystalline content via rapid cooling
. Sterilization with ethylene oxide gas
. Mechanical compression molding at room temperature

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Electron beam or gamma irradiation


Explanation

High cross-linking is achieved by exposing the polyethylene to electron beam or gamma irradiation, which breaks molecular chains and allows free radicals to cross-link. Subsequent thermal treatment (melting or annealing) eliminates residual free radicals.

Question 1969

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty for a severe varus deformity, the surgeon notes symmetric medial tightness in both flexion and extension after making the initial bony cuts. Which soft tissue structure should be sequentially released first to balance the gaps?

. Deep medial collateral ligament
. Superficial medial collateral ligament from the proximal tibia
. Pes anserinus tendons
. Popliteus tendon
. Semimembranosus insertion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superficial medial collateral ligament from the proximal tibia


Explanation

Symmetric medial tightness in both flexion and extension indicates a contracted superficial medial collateral ligament (sMCL). Releasing the sMCL subperiosteally off its proximal tibial attachment is the primary step to achieve coronal balance.

Question 1970

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 58-year-old female presents with persistent groin pain 6 months after an uncemented total hip arthroplasty. The pain is worst when she actively lifts her leg to get into a car. Resisted straight leg raise reproduces her symptoms. Radiographs show the acetabular component is well-fixed but has a prominent anterior edge. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Iliopsoas impingement
. Aseptic loosening of the femoral stem
. Adverse local tissue reaction
. Occult periprosthetic joint infection
. Heterotopic ossification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliopsoas impingement


Explanation

Iliopsoas impingement post-THA presents with groin pain exacerbated by active hip flexion against resistance. It is often caused by an oversized, under-anteverted, or laterally prominent acetabular cup irritating the iliopsoas tendon.

Question 1971

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old female presents with a periprosthetic fracture around a cemented total hip arthroplasty implanted 10 years ago. Radiographs demonstrate a fracture around the tip of the stem with radiolucent lines indicating a loose stem, but with adequate remaining proximal bone stock (Vancouver Type B2). What is the most appropriate management?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate and cables
. Revision to a long cementless fully porous-coated or fluted tapered stem
. Revision with a standard length cemented stem
. Open reduction and internal fixation with strut allografts only
. Non-operative management in a hip spica cast

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a long cementless fully porous-coated or fluted tapered stem


Explanation

This is a Vancouver B2 periprosthetic hip fracture (loose stem, adequate bone stock). The standard of care is revision arthroplasty using a long cementless stem (often fluted and tapered) that bypasses the fracture by at least 2 cortical diameters to achieve diaphyseal fixation. ORIF alone is contraindicated when the stem is loose.

Question 1972

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

An 82-year-old nursing home resident sustained a minimally displaced femoral neck fracture treated with in situ percutaneous pinning. Nine months later, she presents with severe, progressive groin pain. Radiographs demonstrate advanced avascular necrosis with structural collapse of the femoral head. What is the most appropriate salvage procedure?

. Valgus intertrochanteric osteotomy
. Core decompression with bone marrow aspirate concentrate
. Total hip arthroplasty
. Resection arthroplasty (Girdlestone procedure)
. Free vascularized fibular grafting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total hip arthroplasty


Explanation

In an elderly patient with failed internal fixation of a femoral neck fracture due to AVN and structural collapse, conversion to a total hip arthroplasty (or hemiarthroplasty depending on baseline functional status) is the treatment of choice to reliably relieve pain and restore early mobility.

Question 1973

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

An 82-year-old female presents with groin pain after a mechanical fall. X-rays show a periprosthetic fracture around a cemented femoral stem. The fracture extends just below the tip of the stem. The stem is radiographically loose with subsidence, but there is adequate proximal femoral bone stock. According to the Vancouver classification, what is the most appropriate management?

. ORIF with locking plate and cerclage cables
. Revision to a long cemented stem
. Revision to a fully porous-coated, diaphyseal-fitting uncemented stem
. Impaction bone grafting and revision to a standard-length cemented stem
. Proximal femoral replacement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a fully porous-coated, diaphyseal-fitting uncemented stem


Explanation

This is a Vancouver B2 fracture (fracture around the stem, loose component, good proximal bone stock). The standard of care is revision arthroplasty using a long, fully porous-coated or fluted tapered diaphyseal-engaging uncemented stem that bypasses the fracture by at least two cortical diameters.

Question 1974

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty, trial reduction reveals that the knee is well-balanced in full extension, but the flexion gap is unacceptably tight. The surgeon has used a measured resection, posterior referencing technique. Which of the following intraoperative adjustments is most appropriate to balance the gaps?

. Recut the proximal tibia to resect more bone
. Release the posterior cruciate ligament
. Upsize the femoral component
. Downsize the femoral component and use a thicker polyethylene insert
. Downsize the femoral component and use the same thickness polyethylene insert

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component and use the same thickness polyethylene insert


Explanation

If the flexion gap is tight but the extension gap is balanced, the goal is to increase the flexion gap without affecting the extension gap. Using posterior referencing, downsizing the femoral component reduces the AP dimension by resecting more posterior condylar bone, thus increasing the flexion gap. Using the same thickness polyethylene insert ensures the extension gap remains unchanged.

Question 1975

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old male with a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty (THA) placed 6 years ago presents with new-onset groin pain. Radiographs show a well-fixed stem and cup. Serum metal ion testing reveals elevated cobalt levels with normal chromium levels. MRI with MARS sequencing shows a cystic periarticular mass. What is the most likely etiology of his symptoms?

. Polyethylene wear debris induced osteolysis
. Galvanic corrosion at the head-neck taper junction
. Infection with a low-virulence organism
. Aseptic loosening of the acetabular component
. Impingement of the iliopsoas tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Galvanic corrosion at the head-neck taper junction


Explanation

The combination of elevated cobalt with normal chromium in a metal-on-polyethylene THA is classic for mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (MACC) or trunnionosis at the head-neck taper junction. This adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR/ALVAL) can result in a pseudotumor (cystic mass) and necessitates revision of the bearing/head if symptomatic.

Question 1976

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 70-year-old male sustains a fall 5 years after undergoing a right total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs reveal a spiral fracture around the distal aspect of a fully porous-coated femoral stem. The fracture extends 5 cm distal to the tip of the stem. Radiographic and clinical evaluation confirms the stem is solidly fixed. According to the Vancouver classification, what is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Revision to a long cemented stem
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a lateral locking plate and cables
. Strut allograft alone with protective weight-bearing
. Revision to a distally fixing fluted diaphyseal stem
. Nonoperative management with a spica cast

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a lateral locking plate and cables


Explanation

This is a Vancouver B1 periprosthetic femur fracture, defined as a fracture around or just distal to the stem with a well-fixed component and adequate bone stock. The standard of care for a B1 fracture is open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF), typically utilizing a combination of a lateral locking plate, cables, and potentially structural allograft struts. Revision arthroplasty (Options 0 and 3) is indicated for B2 (loose stem, good bone) or B3 (loose stem, poor bone) fractures.

Question 1977

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A healthy, independent, and highly active 68-year-old male sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture. The decision is made to perform a Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA) rather than a Bipolar Hemiarthroplasty. In this specific patient population, THA is associated with which of the following outcomes compared to hemiarthroplasty?

. Lower risk of post-operative dislocation.
. Shorter operative time and less intraoperative blood loss.
. Better long-term functional outcome scores and lower reoperation rates.
. A higher incidence of acetabular wear and protrusion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Better long-term functional outcome scores and lower reoperation rates.


Explanation

In active, healthy, and independent elderly patients with displaced femoral neck fractures, Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA) has been shown to provide better functional outcomes (e.g., Harris Hip Scores), less residual pain, and lower long-term reoperation rates (often due to avoiding acetabular wear/erosion seen with hemiarthroplasty). However, THA is associated with a higher initial risk of dislocation, longer operative time, and greater blood loss compared to hemiarthroplasty.

Question 1978

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

An 82-year-old male with a history of a cementless total hip arthroplasty presents with a periprosthetic femur fracture following a ground-level fall. Radiographs demonstrate a fracture around the stem with obvious component subsidence and severe proximal osteolysis and bone loss extending to the diaphysis. According to the Vancouver classification, what is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a lateral locking plate and cerclage cables
. Open reduction and internal fixation with cortical strut allografts
. Revision to a standard long-stem cementless revision component
. Proximal femoral replacement (megaprosthesis)
. Impaction bone grafting with a cemented revision stem

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal femoral replacement (megaprosthesis)


Explanation

This is a Vancouver B3 periprosthetic femur fracture, defined as a fracture around a loose stem in the setting of poor proximal bone stock. Because the proximal bone cannot support a standard revision stem, the most reliable treatment in an elderly patient is a proximal femoral replacement (megaprosthesis) to allow for immediate weight-bearing and stability.

Question 1979

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old female experiences recurrent anterior dislocations of her total hip arthroplasty. CT imaging is performed to evaluate component positioning. Which of the following component profiles is the most likely etiology of her anterior instability?

. Combined anteversion of 15 degrees
. Excessive combined anteversion of 65 degrees
. Retroverted acetabular component with a neutral stem
. Decreased femoral offset
. Acetabular inclination of 35 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excessive combined anteversion of 65 degrees


Explanation

Anterior dislocation in THA is typically associated with excessive combined anteversion of the acetabular and femoral components. The normal target for combined anteversion (using the widely accepted Widmer or McKibbin principles) is approximately 25 to 45 degrees. A combined anteversion of 65 degrees is excessive and strongly predisposes to anterior instability, especially in extension and external rotation.

Question 1980

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 45-year-old male is being evaluated for a hip resurfacing arthroplasty (HRA). Which of the following patient factors represents an absolute contraindication to this specific procedure?

. Male gender
. Age less than 50 years
. Primary osteoarthritis
. Chronic kidney disease with elevated serum creatinine
. Femoral head size greater than 50 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chronic kidney disease with elevated serum creatinine


Explanation

Hip resurfacing arthroplasty relies on metal-on-metal bearing surfaces, which generate circulating cobalt and chromium ions. These ions are excreted entirely via the kidneys. Therefore, chronic kidney disease (impaired renal clearance) is an absolute contraindication to HRA due to the risk of systemic metal toxicity.