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Question 1921

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old male, 3 weeks status-post primary THA, presents with 3 days of increasing hip pain, erythema, and drainage from the incision. His CRP is 150 mg/L. Aspiration reveals an elevated WBC count with 95% PMNs. Radiographs show stable, well-fixed implants. What is the most appropriate management?

. One-stage revision arthroplasty
. Two-stage revision arthroplasty with an antibiotic spacer
. Indefinite suppressive oral antibiotics
. Debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR) with modular component exchange
. Resection arthroplasty (Girdlestone procedure)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR) with modular component exchange


Explanation

DAIR is indicated for early postoperative periprosthetic joint infections (typically defined as < 4 weeks from the index surgery) or acute hematogenous infections (< 3 weeks of symptoms) when the implants are radiographically stable and the soft-tissue envelope is adequate. Exchanging modular components (e.g., femoral head and polyethylene liner) is critical to reduce the biofilm burden.

Question 1922

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Which design modification in posterior-stabilized (PS) total knee arthroplasty components has most significantly reduced the incidence of patellar clunk syndrome?

. Lowering the profile of the intercondylar box and lengthening the trochlear groove
. Anteriorizing the femoral component to increase the anteroposterior diameter
. Increasing the thickness of the patellar component button
. Medializing the patellar component to improve tracking
. Decreasing the posterior femoral rollback radius

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lowering the profile of the intercondylar box and lengthening the trochlear groove


Explanation

Patellar clunk syndrome occurs primarily in posterior-stabilized (PS) knees due to scar tissue formation in the superior pole of the patella catching in the intercondylar notch. Modern femoral component designs have largely mitigated this by lowering the profile of the intercondylar box, smoothing the transition, and lengthening the trochlear groove.

Question 1923

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a total hip arthroplasty, the surgeon decides to switch from a standard neck stem (131-degree neck-shaft angle) to a high-offset stem (121-degree neck-shaft angle) of the exact same size. Assuming the depth of insertion remains identical, what is the primary biomechanical effect?

. Increases offset and significantly increases leg length
. Increases offset while maintaining leg length
. Maintains offset and decreases leg length
. Decreases offset and significantly increases leg length
. Increases offset and significantly decreases leg length

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increases offset while maintaining leg length


Explanation

Changing from a standard neck-shaft angle to a lower 'varus' angle (high-offset) stem directs the femoral head further laterally. This maneuver primarily increases the horizontal femoral offset without significantly changing the vertical leg length, allowing the surgeon to tension the abductors without lengthening the leg.

Question 1924

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

In a kinematically aligned total knee arthroplasty compared to a traditional mechanically aligned TKA, the femoral component is typically placed in what position relative to the mechanical axis?

. More valgus and external rotation
. More varus and internal rotation
. Neutral coronal alignment and increased external rotation
. Neutral coronal alignment and increased internal rotation
. More valgus and internal rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. More varus and internal rotation


Explanation

Kinematic alignment aims to restore the pre-arthritic joint lines and the natural cylindrical axis of the knee. Because the normal native distal femur has about 3 degrees of joint line valgus (which equates to varus relative to the mechanical axis perpendicular cut) and less external rotation than classic mechanical alignment cuts, the component is placed in more varus and internal rotation compared to a strictly mechanically aligned knee.

Question 1925

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 62-year-old male with a metal-on-polyethylene THA placed 8 years ago presents with new-onset hip pain and swelling. A large periarticular cystic mass is noted on MRI. Joint aspiration is negative for infection. Bloodwork shows a markedly elevated serum cobalt level with a normal chromium level. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Polyethylene wear-induced osteolysis
. Aseptic loosening of the acetabular component
. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (MACC)
. Low-grade periprosthetic joint infection with an indolent organism
. Unrecognized intraoperative placement of a metal-on-metal articulation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (MACC)


Explanation

The clinical presentation describes trunnionosis, or mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (MACC), which occurs at the modular head-neck junction. It can happen even in metal-on-polyethylene bearings, particularly with large head sizes. It is characterized by adverse local tissue reactions (ALTR/pseudotumors) and elevated serum cobalt levels, often with a disproportionately high cobalt-to-chromium ratio.

Question 1926

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 79-year-old patient sustains a periprosthetic femur fracture around a cemented total hip arthroplasty stem. Radiographs demonstrate the fracture extending from the mid-stem to just distal to the tip. The stem is radiographically loose, but there is excellent proximal femoral bone stock. According to the Vancouver classification, what is the fracture type and appropriate treatment?

. Vancouver B1; ORIF with cerclage cables and locking plate
. Vancouver B2; Revision arthroplasty to a long uncemented diaphyseal-engaging stem
. Vancouver B3; Proximal femoral replacement
. Vancouver C; ORIF with locking plate bypassing the stem
. Vancouver A; Nonoperative management with protected weight-bearing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vancouver B2; Revision arthroplasty to a long uncemented diaphyseal-engaging stem


Explanation

A fracture around or just distal to the stem is a Vancouver Type B. Because the stem is loose but the proximal bone stock is adequate, it is classified as a Vancouver B2 fracture. The standard of care for a B2 fracture is revision arthroplasty utilizing a long stem (often uncemented, fluted, and tapered) that bypasses the fracture by at least two cortical diameters.

Question 1927

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 65-year-old male is 8 weeks post-uncomplicated primary TKA and complains of significant stiffness. His range of motion is 15 to 75 degrees despite excellent compliance with aggressive physical therapy. Radiographs confirm appropriate component sizing and alignment without loosening. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Manipulation under anesthesia (MUA)
. Arthroscopic lysis of adhesions
. Open arthrolysis and polyethylene exchange
. Revision total knee arthroplasty
. Continue physical therapy for an additional 3 months before intervention

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Manipulation under anesthesia (MUA)


Explanation

Manipulation under anesthesia (MUA) is the treatment of choice for post-TKA arthrofibrosis (stiffness) that has failed to improve with aggressive physical therapy. The optimal window for MUA is generally between 6 and 12 weeks postoperatively. Waiting beyond 12 weeks decreases the success rate and increases the risk of complications such as supracondylar femur fracture or extensor mechanism disruption during the manipulation.

Question 1928

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

When balancing a total knee arthroplasty in a patient with a severe fixed valgus deformity, isolated release or 'pie-crusting' of the iliotibial (IT) band will primarily affect which gap?

. Both the lateral flexion and extension gaps equally
. The lateral extension gap more than the flexion gap
. The lateral flexion gap more than the extension gap
. The medial extension gap only
. The medial flexion gap only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The lateral extension gap more than the flexion gap


Explanation

The iliotibial (IT) band is a strong lateral structure that is tight in extension and relatively relaxed in flexion. Therefore, isolated release or pie-crusting of the IT band will primarily open the lateral extension gap, with minimal effect on the lateral flexion gap. To affect the lateral flexion gap, release of the popliteus tendon is required.

Question 1929

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 78-year-old male with a history of recurrent posterior THA dislocations undergoes revision surgery. Intraoperative evaluation reveals an extremely deficient abductor mechanism. The acetabular shell is well-fixed and in appropriate anteversion and inclination. Which intervention will best restore stability in this patient?

. Use of an elevated rim liner placed in the anterior superior position
. Increasing horizontal femoral offset alone
. Revision to a dual-mobility articulation or a constrained liner
. Conversion to a bipolar hemiarthroplasty
. Distal advancement of the greater trochanter

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a dual-mobility articulation or a constrained liner


Explanation

In the setting of severe abductor deficiency leading to recurrent instability where components are well-positioned, optimizing soft tissue tension is often impossible. Therefore, an implant with high intrinsic stability is required. A dual-mobility construct or a constrained acetabular liner is indicated. Dual-mobility is typically preferred due to a better range of motion and lower risk of mechanical failure.

Question 1930

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a total knee arthroplasty, 'overstuffing' the patellofemoral joint by using a patellar component that is too thick can predictably lead to which of the following postoperative complications?

. Decreased terminal knee extension
. Increased peak patellofemoral contact forces and restricted knee flexion
. Anterior knee pain associated with increased flexion gap laxity
. Acquired patella alta
. Premature wear of the posterior femoral condylar polyethylene

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased peak patellofemoral contact forces and restricted knee flexion


Explanation

Overstuffing the patellofemoral joint (restoring an anteroposterior dimension that is greater than the native patella) increases the tension on the extensor mechanism. This reliably leads to increased patellofemoral contact forces (presenting as anterior knee pain) and restricts terminal knee flexion due to early impingement and tightness of the quadriceps mechanism.

Question 1931

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old female presents with anterior knee pain and a reproducible "popping" sensation when extending her knee from a flexed position. She underwent a primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 18 months ago. Examination reveals a palpable catch at approximately 30 to 45 degrees of flexion as the knee extends. Which of the following implant design features is most strongly associated with this specific complication?

. Cruciate-retaining (CR) design with an asymmetric tibial polyethylene insert
. Posterior-stabilized (PS) design with a high intercondylar box ratio
. Medial pivot design with a highly congruent polyethylene insert
. Unresurfaced patella with an asymmetrical femoral trochlear groove
. Mobile-bearing design with a deep trochlear geometry

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior-stabilized (PS) design with a high intercondylar box ratio


Explanation

The patient's presentation is classic for "patellar clunk syndrome," which is predominantly associated with posterior-stabilized (PS) TKA designs. It occurs due to the formation of a fibrous nodule at the superior pole of the patella. As the knee extends from a flexed position (usually around 30-45 degrees), this nodule catches in the intercondylar box of the femoral component and then snaps out, causing a painful clunk. Implant designs with a high intercondylar box ratio (a sharp, anteriorly placed box) have historically demonstrated a higher incidence of this complication.

Question 1932

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 70-year-old male presents with progressively worsening anterior groin pain 5 years after an uncomplicated primary THA. He has a highly cross-linked polyethylene liner, a 36-mm cobalt-chromium femoral head, and a titanium alloy femoral stem. Radiographs show a well-fixed stem and cup. An MRI with metal artifact reduction sequence (MARS) reveals a 4-cm cystic periarticular mass. Serological workup is notable for elevated cobalt levels and normal chromium levels. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism for this failure?

. Aseptic loosening secondary to high-molecular-weight polyethylene wear debris
. Adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR) resulting from mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the head-neck junction
. Galvanic corrosion occurring at the modular acetabular shell-liner interface
. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction to titanium wear particles from the femoral stem
. Undiagnosed indolent periprosthetic joint infection caused by Cutibacterium acnes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR) resulting from mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the head-neck junction


Explanation

The clinical picture describes trunnionosis (mechanically assisted crevice corrosion and fretting) at the modular head-neck junction. This is classically seen when a cobalt-chromium head is placed on a titanium stem, particularly with larger diameter heads (e.g., 36 mm or larger) which increase frictional torque on the trunnion. This process releases cobalt ions out of proportion to chromium ions (unlike metal-on-metal bearings where Co and Cr are elevated symmetrically), leading to an adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR) presenting as a cystic pseudotumor and groin pain.

Question 1933

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During trialing in a primary posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty utilizing a measured resection technique, the surgeon finds that the knee is well-balanced and fully extends to 0 degrees symmetrically. However, upon testing flexion, the joint is symmetrically tight at 90 degrees and cannot achieve full flexion. What is the most appropriate next step to balance the knee?

. Resect an additional 2 mm from the distal femur
. Release the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Downsize the femoral component and use a thicker polyethylene insert
. Recut the proximal tibia with an increased posterior slope
. Decrease the AP size of the femoral component utilizing an anterior referencing system

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decrease the AP size of the femoral component utilizing an anterior referencing system


Explanation

An isolated tight flexion gap with a symmetric, well-balanced extension gap usually indicates that the anteroposterior (AP) dimension of the femoral component is too large, or the posterior tibial slope is inadequate. Decreasing the AP size of the femur (downsizing) utilizing an anterior referencing guide will selectively remove more posterior condylar bone, thereby enlarging the flexion gap without altering the extension gap. Upsizing or increasing the AP dimension would worsen the tightness. Changing the polyethylene thickness would affect both gaps equally. Distal femoral resection affects only the extension gap.

Question 1934

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Which of the following physical examination or radiographic findings is considered a strict contraindication to performing a medial unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA) using standard traditional criteria?

. Intact anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. A flexion contracture of 20 degrees
. A correctable varus deformity of 10 degrees
. Patient age greater than 60 years
. Body mass index (BMI) greater than 30 kg/m^2

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A flexion contracture of 20 degrees


Explanation

According to the classic Kozinn and Scott criteria for unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA), absolute contraindications include inflammatory arthropathy, fixed varus deformity > 15 degrees, fixed valgus deformity > 20 degrees, flexion contracture > 15 degrees, and ACL deficiency (though modern criteria with fixed-bearing designs have challenged the ACL deficiency rule). A flexion contracture of 20 degrees exceeds the accepted threshold and requires a total knee arthroplasty (TKA) for adequate soft tissue balancing and bone resection.

Question 1935

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Based on the 2018 International Consensus Meeting (ICM) criteria for Periprosthetic Joint Infection (PJI), which of the following findings is considered a definitive "Major Criteria," establishing the diagnosis of PJI independently?

. A synovial fluid white blood cell (WBC) count of 4,500 cells/µL
. A positive synovial fluid alpha-defensin test
. A single intraoperative tissue culture positive for Staphylococcus epidermidis
. A sinus tract communicating with the prosthesis
. An elevated serum C-reactive protein (CRP) > 10 mg/L and D-dimer > 860 ng/mL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A sinus tract communicating with the prosthesis


Explanation

The 2018 ICM criteria dictate that the presence of either of two Major Criteria definitively establishes the diagnosis of PJI. These are: 1) Two positive periprosthetic cultures with phenotypically identical organisms, or 2) A sinus tract communicating with the joint or visualizing the prosthesis. The other options (elevated synovial WBC, positive alpha-defensin, single positive culture, elevated CRP/D-dimer) are minor criteria that contribute to an aggregate scoring system but do not diagnose PJI independently.

Question 1936

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a revision total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon encounters massive metaphyseal bone loss on both the femoral and tibial sides. Furthermore, the medial collateral ligament (MCL) epicondylar origin has been completely compromised by the osteolysis. According to the Anderson Orthopaedic Research Institute (AORI) classification, this is a Type III defect. What is the most appropriate reconstructive strategy?
. Cruciate-retaining prosthesis with extensive cancellous bone grafting
. Posterior-stabilized prosthesis with metaphyseal sleeves
. Unlinked constrained condylar knee (CCK) with diaphyseal engaging stems
. Rotating hinge knee (RHK) prosthesis with diaphyseal engaging stems
. Resection arthroplasty and immediate arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rotating hinge knee (RHK) prosthesis with diaphyseal engaging stems


Explanation

AORI Type III bone defects are defined by severe bone loss that compromises a major portion of the condyles/metaphysis and is occasionally accompanied by collateral ligament detachment or complete structural incompetence. In revision TKA where the MCL or LCL is absent or non-functional, an unlinked constrained device (like CCK) cannot provide adequate coronal stability. A linked, rotating hinge knee (RHK) prosthesis with long diaphyseal engaging stems is required to substitute for the global ligamentous incompetence and provide intrinsic stability.

Question 1937

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 78-year-old female sustains a periprosthetic femur fracture around her cemented total hip arthroplasty stem. Radiographs demonstrate a fracture located around the distal tip of the stem with extension into the diaphysis. The cement mantle is fractured, indicating a loose stem, and there is severe osteolysis and comminution of the proximal femur, leaving inadequate bone stock for proximal fixation. What is the correct Vancouver classification and the recommended treatment?

. Vancouver B1; Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate and cables
. Vancouver B2; Revision to a long cementless fully porous-coated stem
. Vancouver B3; Revision utilizing a proximal femoral replacement (megaprosthesis)
. Vancouver C; Open reduction and internal fixation utilizing a locking plate bypassing the stem
. Vancouver B3; Revision utilizing an impaction bone grafting technique with a cemented stem

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vancouver B3; Revision utilizing a proximal femoral replacement (megaprosthesis)


Explanation

The Vancouver classification for periprosthetic femur fractures relies on fracture location, stem stability, and bone stock. This fracture is at/around the stem (Type B). The stem is loose (rules out B1). The proximal bone stock is severely deficient/comminuted, making it a B3 fracture. The recommended treatment for a Vancouver B3 fracture in an elderly patient with poor bone stock is typically a proximal femoral replacement (megaprosthesis) to bypass the un-reconstructible proximal bone and allow for immediate weight-bearing.

Question 1938

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old female with severe rheumatoid arthritis presents for a primary THA. Preoperative radiographs demonstrate severe protrusio acetabuli (Kohler's line is crossed by the femoral head). When preparing the acetabulum during surgery, what is the most appropriate technique to achieve a stable, biomechanically sound reconstruction?

. Aggressive medial reaming to achieve maximum contact area for an oversized cementless cup
. Placement of the acetabular component in a medially transposed position to decrease joint reactive forces
. Utilization of a bipolar hemiarthroplasty rather than a total hip arthroplasty
. Peripheral rim reaming only, combined with medial impaction bone grafting to lateralize the center of rotation
. Utilization of a constrained acetabular liner to prevent medial migration

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peripheral rim reaming only, combined with medial impaction bone grafting to lateralize the center of rotation


Explanation

In protrusio acetabuli, the center of rotation is pathologically medialized, and the medial wall is extremely thin or absent. The biomechanical goal of THA in this setting is to restore the normal, anatomic center of rotation by lateralizing the cup. This is achieved by reaming peripherally to achieve an interference rim fit on the strong peripheral bone, and using impaction bone grafting (autograft from the femoral head or allograft) to fill the medial defect and prevent the cup from medializing.

Question 1939

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old female presents for a primary total knee arthroplasty. She has a documented severe hypersensitivity reaction to nickel, confirmed by a dermatologist via patch testing. Which of the following femoral component materials is the most appropriate alternative to minimize her risk of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction?

. Standard cast Cobalt-Chromium-Molybdenum (CoCrMo) alloy
. Wrought Cobalt-Chromium-Tungsten-Nickel (CoCrWNi) alloy
. Oxidized Zirconium (Oxinium) alloy
. Stainless steel 316L
. Polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) impregnated with antibiotic

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Oxidized Zirconium (Oxinium) alloy


Explanation

Standard total knee arthroplasty femoral components are predominantly made of Cobalt-Chromium (CoCr) alloy, which invariably contains trace amounts of nickel and can elicit a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction in susceptible patients. In patients with severe, confirmed nickel allergy, alternative bearing surfaces must be used. Oxidized zirconium (Oxinium) or an all-titanium component (often titanium-nitride coated) are the standard alternatives, as they lack nickel. Stainless steel (316L) also contains a significant amount of nickel (10-14%).

Question 1940

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During a complex revision TKA, the surgeon notes that the joint line has been inadvertently elevated by 8 mm compared to its pre-disease anatomic location. If left uncorrected, which of the following complications is most likely to occur postoperatively?

. Genu recurvatum during the stance phase of gait
. Patella alta leading to anterior knee pain and extensor lag
. Mid-flexion instability and pseudo-patella baja
. Increased range of motion with excessive laxity in full extension
. Impingement of the patellar component against the tibial polyethylene tray in full extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mid-flexion instability and pseudo-patella baja


Explanation

Elevation of the joint line in revision TKA is a common error resulting from excessive distal femoral resection without adequate augmentation. Because the patellar tendon length remains constant from the tibial tubercle, elevating the joint line moves the femoral trochlea proximally relative to the patella, creating a "pseudo-patella baja" (the patella sits abnormally low relative to the joint line, causing impingement and decreased ROM). Additionally, because the collateral ligaments originate on the epicondyles, moving the joint line proximally without altering the AP dimension introduces slack into the ligaments in mid-flexion, leading to mid-flexion instability. The solution is using distal femoral augments to restore the joint line distally.