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Question 1501

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

.What is the most appropriate treatment if instability is present at the time of evaluation?

. TEA
. Distal humeral replacement arthroplasty
. Arthroscopic release with debridement
. Soft-tissue interposition arthroplastyDISCUSSION..The radiographs reveal ulnohumeral arthrosis with relative sparing of the radiocapitellar articulation secondary to underlying osteoarthritis. Arthrosis of the elbow joint in thisyoung and active patient presents a treatment dilemma for the surgeon. Interposition arthroplasty allows for improved function with pain relief and no weight-lifting restrictions, as required with TEA. This option is an intermediate procedure that preserves bone stock and allows for conversion to a TEA if necessary. Conventional TEA would provide pain relief with improved range of motion, but activity limitation and lifetime weight restrictions make this an undesirable option. Arthroscopic debridement is not an option, considering the previous failure from this modality. Contraindications for soft-tissue interposition arthroplasty include elbow instability, active infection, and pain without motion loss. Common complications associated with this procedure include instability, infection, ulnar neuropathy, bone resorption, and heterotopic bone formation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. TEA


Explanation

Question 1502

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Following total elbow arthroplasty, patients should be instructed to Review Topic

. return to impact activities such as golf or tennis.
. permanently limit the load bearing of that arm to 5 pounds or less.
. aggressively strengthen the triceps immediately following surgery.
. immobilize the wrist and hand for 4 weeks postoperatively to minimize stress on the surgical site.
. avoid pronation and supination to reduce torsional stress on the implant.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. return to impact activities such as golf or tennis.


Explanation

Current recommendations are for a lifetime restriction of load bearing and avoidance of impact activities following total elbow arthroplasty (TEA). TEA is a very effective procedure in reducing pain or reconstructing previously unreconstructable fractures. However, its usage must be tempered with the limitations of currently available prostheses. Aggressive triceps strengthening must be delayed following TEA to allow healing of the triceps attachment, regardless of the surgical approach. Wrist and hand mobilization should begin immediately postoperatively to prevent stiffness. Pronation and supination should not stress a humeral ulnar arthroplasty.

Question 1503

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Familial (Leiden) thrombophilia is of importance in joint arthroplasty because of an abnormality in the clotting cascade. Which of the following statements best describes the condition?

. It is a disease caused by an abnormality of platelets that leads to increased blood clotting.
. It is a disease caused by an abnormality of vascular endothelium that leads to increased blood clotting.
. It is a disease caused by an abnormality of hepatic metabolism that leads to decreased production of factor V and decreased blood clotting.
. It is a disease caused by an abnormality of factor V that leads to decreased inactivation of factor Va by activated protein C (aPC) and increased blood clotting.
. It is a familial, genetic disease that requires placement of a Greenfield filter in all individuals who have the abnormality, prior to surgery.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It is a disease caused by an abnormality of platelets that leads to increased blood clotting.


Explanation

Factor V Leiden is a disease caused by an abnormality of factor V in which a single amino acid substitution of glutamine for arginine in the protein C cleavage region leads to decreased inactivation of factor V and thus a greater tendency to form clots. More than half of all individuals with Factor V Leiden will develop deep venous thrombosis in the presence of a single additional risk factor such as long bone fracture or total joint arthroplasty.

Question 1504

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 60-year-old man who underwent left partial knee arthroplasty 6 months earlier was doing well until he experienced left knee pain and swelling for 4 weeks following a dental procedure. The left knee aspirate was bloody, with a white blood cell count of 8,000 and 70% neutrophils. Culture grew group B Streptococcus (Granulicatella adiacens), and serologies were elevated, with an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 55 mm/h (reference range: 0 to 20 mm/h) and a C-reactive protein level of 24 mg/L (reference range: 0.08 to 3.1 mg/L). What is the best next step?
. Arthroscopic debridement
. Two-stage total knee revision arthroplasty
. Resection arthroplasty without an antibiotic impregnated cement spacer
. Knee fusion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Two-stage total knee revision arthroplasty


Explanation

DISCUSSION: This complication is best addressed with either a single-stage or two-stage total knee arthroplasty. A recent report suggests that a single-stage arthroplasty can be effective, although many surgeons would perform a two-stage procedure with an articulating or static spacer. Arthroscopic would be non-effective, especially given 4 weeks of symptoms. Resection arthroplasty without a spacer would leave an unstable and poorly functioning extremity. Knee fusion should be used as a salvage procedure.

Question 1505

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
Figure below shows the standing AP radiograph obtained from a 55-year-old man who has a 5-year history of daily left knee medial joint line pain with weight-bearing activities. He denies night pain or symptoms of instability. On examination, his range of motion is 0° to 140°. He has a mild, fully correctable varus deformity and a negative Lachman test result. Nonsurgical treatment has failed. What is the UKA survivorship for a 55-year-old patient, compared with the survivorship for total knee arthroplasty?
. Equal at 10 years
. Lower at 10 years
. Higher at 10 years
. Not known when using a mobile-bearing UKA

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lower at 10 years


Explanation

DISCUSSION: A patient with medial compartment arthritis and a correctable varus deformity with no clinical or examination findings of knee instability most likely has an intact anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). The pattern of medial compartment osteoarthritis most commonly associated with an intact ACL is that of anteromedial osteoarthritis. An incompetent ACL is commonly associated with a fixed varus deformity and radiographic signs of posteromedial wear. An incompetent ACL is a relative contraindication to a mobile-bearing UKA. When evaluating patients for a mobile-bearing UKA, a stress radiograph aids the orthopaedic surgeon in determining the correction of the varus deformity and assessing the lateral compartment. An inability to fully correct the deformity or narrowing of the lateral compartment with valgus stress should influence the surgeon against UKA. Joint registries across the world have shown decreased survivorship associated with TKA and UKA in men compared with other age groups, but survivorship is lower for UKA than for TKA. No studies to date have shown any differences in survivorship between fixed-bearing and mobile-bearing UKAs. The complication that is unique to mobile-bearing UKA is bearing spinout, which occurs in less than 1% of mobile-bearing UKA procedures. In vivo and in vitro polyethylene wear in mobile-bearing UKA are low. Arthritis may progress faster in patients with mobile-bearing UKAs than in those with fixed-bearing UKAs.

Question 1506

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A metal-on-metal bearing used for total hip arthroplasty shows which of the following properties?
. Baseline serum ion levels increase with increasing activity levels.
. The risk of cancer is substantially increased.
. Linear ion production increases over time.
. Ions produced are excreted primarily through the kidney.
. Nickel is the most prevalent ion released into circulation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ions produced are excreted primarily through the kidney.


Explanation

Activity levels do not affect cobalt and chromium ion levels, which are the bulk of serum ion levels. The majority of ions are produced in the run-in period in the first several years. A gradual reduction in ion levels occurs thereafter. The kidneys are responsible for the bulk of clearance from the serum, and to date there is no relationship of cancer to ion levels in the serum.

Question 1507

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following findings best describes the effects of increasing conformity of a fixed tibial bearing component and femoral component in total knee arthroplasty?
. Increased peak contact stress, decreased component edge loading
. Increased peak contact stress, increased component wear rates
. Decreased peak contact stress, increased component wear rates
. Decreased peak contact stress, decreased component wear rates
. Decreased peak contact stress, decreased component edge loading

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased peak contact stress, decreased component wear rates


Explanation

In the design of tibial and femoral components, a compromise must be made between contact stresses and constraint. Increased conformity increases constraint, limits motion, and potentially increases stress on the knee-cement interface. By increasing conformity, the surface area over which force is applied is increased, resulting in decreased peak contact stresses and decreased component wear rates.

Question 1508

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Examination of a 30-year-old professional singer who has persistent neck and shoulder pain reveals a positive Hoffman’s sign and clonus because of anterior C2-3 cord compression. The MRI scan shown in Figure 11a and the cervical CT scan shown in Figure 11b reveal focal anterior cord compression at the C2-3 level. Which of the following surgical approaches would least affect her professional career?
. Transoral, transmucosal direct anterior approach to C2-3
. Left-sided anterior approach to C2-3 (Smith-Robinson)
. Right-sided posterior retropharyngeal approach to C2-3 (Whitesides)
. Right-sided anterior approach to C2-3 (Smith-Robinson)
. Right-sided anterior retropharyngeal approach with extended vertical incision (superior extension Smith-Robinson)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Right-sided anterior retropharyngeal approach with extended vertical incision (superior extension Smith-Robinson)


Explanation

Protection of the superior laryngeal nerve is critical in a professional singer. The nerve is easily injured with retraction when using vertical extension of common anterior surgical approaches to gain exposure to the C2-3 level. McAfee and associates reported on 17 patients with C1-2 and C2-3 pathology. They used a modified submandibular approach as an anterior retropharyngeal exposure with modification of the superior extension of the Smith-Robinson technique that allows visualization of the superior laryngeal nerve and surrounding structures. No incidences of superior laryngeal nerve injury were recorded. The transoral approach should be avoided because of the high rate of infection and limited exposure.

Question 1509

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
The most compelling clinical reason to convert a hip arthrodesis to a total hip arthroplasty is that the latter
. improves hip range of motion.
. relieves pain associated with arthritis of the lumbar spine.
. relieves pain associated with arthritis of the knee.
. relieves pain in the contralateral hip.
. corrects a limb-length discrepancy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. relieves pain associated with arthritis of the lumbar spine.


Explanation

Studies show that degenerative arthritis of the spine associated with a hip arthrodesis can be decreased with conversion to a total hip arthroplasty. The pain associated with degenerative arthritis of the knee usually persists after arthrodesis take-down procedures and often requires total knee arthroplasty. Pain in the contralateral hip is not resolved by converting the arthrodesis. Improving range of motion of the hip and correcting a limb-length discrepancy are not good indications for take-down procedures.

Question 1510

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

In the treatment of thoracolumbar idiopathic scoliosis using an anterior single rod technique with interbody cages, which of the following variables has been associated with pseudoarthrosis. Review Topic

. Thoracic curve coronal correction of > 40%
. Thoracolumbar/lumbar curve coronal correction > 50%
. Smaller adolescents (<50 kg)
. Failure to maintain lumbar lordosis of > 45 degrees
. Thoracic hyperkyphosis (>40 degrees )

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thoracic curve coronal correction of > 40%


Explanation

In select patients with thoracolumbar idiopathic scoliosis, an anterior approach with a single rod and interbody cages may be indicated. Thoracic hyperkyphosis (>40 degrees ) is a risk factor for pseudoarthrosis in patients treated with this method.In a prospective study, Sweet et al found anterior instrumented fusions using a single solid rod had good radiographic and clinical outcomes. In their treatment group they found common risk factors for pseudarthrosis were smoking, weight >70 kg, and T5-T12 hyperkyphosis of > 40 degrees. They recommend consideration should be given to alternate techniques in larger adolescents (>70 kg) with thoracic hyperkyphosis (>40 degrees ). The average coronal correction of thoracic curves was from 55 degrees to 29 degrees (47%). The average correction of thoracolumbar/lumbar curves was from 50 degrees to 15 degrees (70%). Neither of these variables were associated with pseudoarthrosis. In the sagittal plane, lordosis was maintained in thoracolumbar/lumbar fusions at -58 degrees (T12-sacrum). Improved maintenance of lumbar lordosis is considered one of the advantages of an anterior approach.In an additional study from the same group at Wash U, Hurford et al designed a study to compare the results of anterior DUAL-rod instrumentation with their previous experience using single-rod constructs. They found the two technique were comparable in the amount of radiographic deformity correction obtained. However, they report the absence of any pseudarthroses in the 60 patients with dual-rod is a distinct advantage over the single rod technique.

Question 1511

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 68-year-old woman underwent an uncemented medial/lateral tapered femoral placement during a total hip arthroplasty. The orthopaedic surgeon noticed a nondisplaced vertical fracture in the calcar region of the femoral neck during final implant insertion. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Removal of the press-fit implant and cementing of the same femoral stem
. Removal of the uncemented femoral component and placement of a revision modular taper-fluted femoral stem
. Removal of the implant, placement of a cerclage wire around the femoral neck above the lesser trochanter, and reinsertion of the implant
. Final seating of the uncemented femoral component without additional measures

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Removal of the implant, placement of a cerclage wire around the femoral neck above the lesser trochanter, and reinsertion of the implant


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The recognized treatment for a proximal periprosthetic fracture is to first identify the extent and then optimize the correction of the fracture. Several studies indicate that proximal cerclage wiring is adequate to create "barrel hoop" stability of the proximal femur. Braided cables offer superior stability compared with twisted wires or Luque wires. Finally, the appropriate postoperative treatment is protected weight bearing for 6 weeks, with periodic radiographs taken at 2-week intervals. Other options such as cementing the femoral stem and using a revision arthroplasty device are indicated for unstable fractures.

Question 1512

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which modality has the broadest application for the reduction of postsurgical transfusion?
. Regional anesthesia
. Tranexamic acid (TXA) administration
. Reduced transfusion trigger
. Hypotensive anesthesia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tranexamic acid (TXA) administration


Explanation

DISCUSSION: TXA is easy to administer, inexpensive, and safe for virtually all patients. Multiple studies have demonstrated transfusion rates lower than 3% for total knee arthroplasty and lower than 10% for total hip arthroplasty. Regional and hypotensive anesthesia effectively reduce transfusion; however, they cannot be used in as wide a range of patients as can TXA. A reduced transfusion trigger must be considered along with patient symptoms when determining the need for transfusion.

Question 1513

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A research study is initiated on 500 patients undergoing total hip arthroplasty. The patients are followed and outcome is assessed according to body mass index (BMI). The effects of BMI on outcome should be reported as which of the following?

. Odds ratio
. Incidence rates
. Prevalence rates
. Relative risk
. Confidence intervals

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Odds ratio


Explanation

The study describes an example of a cohort study. Cohort studies follow a group of individuals over time and are optimal for studying the incidence, course, and risk factors of a disease. The effects in a cohort study are frequently reported in terms of relative risk (RR). Odds ratios are used to report effects in a case-control study. Incidence and prevalence rates are descriptors of a given characteristic either developed over time (incidence) or at one given time (prevalence). Confidence intervals are used to convey the significance of findings and are often used in lieu of or in conjunction with P values.

Question 1514

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
An 85-year-old obese woman has left knee pain. She had surgery 5 years ago for a patellar nonunion after total knee arthroplasty that was complicated by infection, which was treated with implant removal and patellectomy. She has not been ambulatory since then. She states she is no longer on antibiotics. She has moderate pain, but her primary problem is instability of the knee. She has a 40° extensor lag. Darkening of the skin is present distal to the incision consistent with venous stasis changes. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 12 mm/h (reference range 0 to 20 mm/h) and her C-reactive protein level is 1.0 mg/L (reference range 0.08 to 3.1 mg/L). Left knee aspiration shows a white blood cell count of 800 and 20% neutrophils. What is the best next step?
. Revision total knee arthroplasty with primary quadriceps tendon repair
. Hinged knee arthroplasty with full extensor mechanism allograft
. Arthrotomy with debridement and antegrade knee arthrodesis nailing
. Drop-lock knee brace

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Drop-lock knee brace


Explanation

This patient is elderly, obese, and nonambulatory and has a chronic quadriceps tendon rupture after infected total knee arthroplasty. Her potential for ambulation after revision total knee arthroplasty is very low. Primary repair of the tendon is unlikely to be successful, even with augmentation. Extensor mechanism allograft could be done but would have a high failure rate in a patient of this size. No sign of infection is seen, based on laboratory studies, so a two-stage procedure is not necessary. The best management, although not optimal, would be treatment in a drop-lock brace. Arthrodesis is also an option, but would have a high complication rate, and in a patient that is nonambulatory, a fused knee would be increasingly difficult with activities of daily living and mobility.

Question 1515

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 57-year-old woman experiences pain 1 year after total knee arthroplasty (TKA). She reports sharp anterior pain and a painful catching sensation that is aggravated by rising from a chair or climbing stairs. Physical examination reveals a mild effusion and a range of motion of 2° to 130°, with patellar crepitus. The symptoms are reproduced by resisted knee extension. Radiographs show a well-aligned posterior-stabilized TKA without evidence of component loosening. What is the most likely cause of this patient's pain?
. Patellar clunk syndrome
. Flexion gap instability
. Polyethylene wear
. Femoral component malrotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patellar clunk syndrome


Explanation

Patellar clunk syndrome is caused by the development of a fibrous nodule on the posterior aspect of the quadriceps tendon at its insertion into the patella. It causes a painful catching sensation when the extensor mechanism traverses over the trochlear notch as the knee extends from 45° of flexion to 30° from full extension. It characteristically occurs in posterior stabilized total knee arthroplasties and appears to be related to femoral component design. The syndrome can usually be prevented by excising the residual synovial fold just proximal to the patella.

Question 1516

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A woman with a history of osteoporosis is involved in a high-speed motor vehicle accident, resulting in left hip pain and deformity. The initial radiograph from the trauma bay is shown. Postreduction CT is shown. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical treatment?
. Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of the acetabular fracture with concomitant acute total hip arthroplasty
. ORIF of the acetabular fracture and ORIF of the femoral head fracture fragments
. ORIF of the acetabular fracture and hemiarthroplasty
. Skeletal traction with delayed total hip arthroplasty after the acetabular fracture has healed

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of the acetabular fracture with concomitant acute total hip arthroplasty


Explanation

The radiograph shows a posterior wall acetabular fracture-dislocation. Post reduction CT indicates a large comminuted posterior wall fracture with marginal impaction of the articular surface. A comminuted femoral head fracture also is seen extending to the superior weight-bearing surface. Given the marginal impaction of the acetabulum and the considerable comminution of the femoral head (which is likely unreconstructible), this injury would have a high risk of causing posttraumatic arthritis if treated with ORIF of the fractures alone. Considering this fact and the patient’s age, ORIF of the posterior wall and acute total hip arthroplasty would likely have the best functional result and the lowest risk of reoperation. Hemiarthroplasty is inappropriate for this injury considering the acetabular fracture. Skeletal traction currently plays a limited role in the definitive treatment of acetabular fractures.

Question 1517

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
The direct anterior (Smith-Peterson) approach to hip arthroplasty is most commonly associated with injury to what nerve?
. Lateral femoral cutaneous
. Sciatic
. Pudendal
. Superior gluteal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral cutaneous


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Some authors have reported the incidence of lateral femoral cutaneous nerve neuropraxia following hip arthroplasty with the direct anterior approach to be near 80%, but resolution of the sensory deficits has been observed in most patients over time.

Question 1518

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Two years after undergoing a total shoulder arthroplasty, a patient reports increasing pain, stiffness, and swelling, and has an increased white blood cell count. Radiographs show lucencies around the glenoid and humeral components. You suspect infection. Which of the following is the most likely responsible organism? Review Topic

. Staphylococcus aureus
. Staphylococcus epidermidis
. Propionibacterium acnes
. Escherichia coli
. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Staphylococcus aureus


Explanation

The most likely organism to cause late infection in shoulder arthroplasty is Propionibacterium acnes. This is a slow growing organism that is present in over 50% of chronic infections. Staphylococcus epidermidis is the second most likely organism in this setting, present in 15% of cases. The other three organisms are unlikely to present with this clinical picture.

Question 1519

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 58-year-old man with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus underwent primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA). A full-thickness skin slough measuring 3 cm by 4 cm developed, with postsurgical exposure of the patellar tendon. No change is observed in the appearance of the wound after 2 weeks of wet-to-dry dressing changes. What is the best next treatment step for the soft-tissue defect?
. Continued dressing changes
. Split-thickness skin graft
. Full-thickness skin graft
. Local rotational flap

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Local rotational flap


Explanation

If wound healing does not occur and deep soft tissues such as the patellar tendon are exposed following TKA, a local rotational flap is the procedure of choice. The procedure should be performed relatively early after the recognition of a soft-tissue wound-healing problem. In the setting of TKA, the gastrocnemius muscle is an excellent source of flaps for wound coverage of the proximal tibia.

Question 1520

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 70-year-old woman reports anterior knee pain after undergoing an uncomplicated total knee arthroplasty 6 months ago. Examination reveals prepatellar tenderness, with no extensor lag. The radiographs shown in Figures 25a through 25c reveal a well-fixed patellar component. Management should consist of
. closed treatment with early motion.
. a cylindrical cast and restricted weight bearing.
. open reduction and internal fixation.
. patellar revision.
. patellectomy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. a cylindrical cast and restricted weight bearing.


Explanation

Patellar fractures that occur after a total knee arthroplasty are usually stress fractures. Integrity of the extensor mechanism precludes the need for surgical repair or internal fixation, while stability and fixation of the patellar component determine whether revision is indicated. A cylindrical cast and full weight bearing for 6 weeks is recommended for transverse fractures with an intact extensor mechanism and a stable component. A similar fracture, if vertical, may be treated with earlier motion.