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Question 1401

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty, trial components are inserted. Evaluation reveals that the knee is perfectly stable and balanced in full extension, but demonstrates excessive medial and lateral laxity at 90 degrees of flexion. What is the most appropriate surgical adjustment to correct this imbalance?

. Insert a thicker polyethylene insert
. Downsize the femoral component and use a thicker polyethylene insert
. Upsize the femoral component, utilizing posterior augments if necessary
. Resect additional distal femur
. Recut the proximal tibia to decrease the posterior slope

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Insert a thicker polyethylene insert


Explanation

A knee that is balanced in extension but loose in flexion indicates an excessively large flexion gap. To selectively tighten the flexion gap without altering the extension gap, the surgeon should upsize the femoral component (often requiring posterior augments to avoid overstuffing anteriorly). Using a thicker poly would incorrectly tighten the already balanced extension gap.

Question 1402

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old female undergoes a right total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. Postoperatively in the recovery room, she demonstrates a dense foot drop and diminished sensation over the dorsal aspect of her right foot and lateral leg.

Which of the following intraoperative factors is most commonly responsible for this specific nerve injury?

. Direct transection of the obturator nerve during acetabular preparation
. Excessive lengthening of the operative limb resulting in a traction injury
. Direct crushing injury from anteriorly placed acetabular retractors
. Excessive retraction and devascularization of the gluteus medius
. Thermal injury from escaping polymethylmethacrylate cement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Direct transection of the obturator nerve during acetabular preparation


Explanation

The patient is exhibiting signs of a peroneal nerve palsy (a division of the sciatic nerve). The peroneal division is lateral and more firmly tethered, making it highly susceptible to traction injuries. The most common cause of sciatic nerve palsy after THA is excessive lengthening of the limb (typically >4 cm).

Question 1403

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 70-year-old male presents with severe anterior knee pain and a complete inability to actively extend his knee, occurring 3 years after a primary total knee arthroplasty. Imaging confirms a chronic, complete, and retracted patellar tendon rupture.

What is the most reliable reconstructive option given the chronic nature and poor tissue quality?

. Primary end-to-end repair with heavy nonabsorbable sutures
. Autologous semitendinosus and gracilis graft reconstruction
. Extensor mechanism allograft reconstruction (tibial tubercle, patellar tendon, patella, quadriceps tendon)
. Medial gastrocnemius rotational flap
. Lifelong immobilization in a cylinder cast

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Primary end-to-end repair with heavy nonabsorbable sutures


Explanation

Chronic, complete extensor mechanism disruptions following TKA are notoriously difficult to treat. Primary repair or simple autograft reconstructions have unacceptably high failure rates due to poor local tissue quality. The most reliable surgical treatment is an extensor mechanism allograft or a robust synthetic mesh reconstruction.

Question 1404

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During the femoral preparation of a primary total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon is utilizing a posterior referencing sizing guide.

The patient's anatomy falls exactly between sizes on the guide. If the surgeon elects to downsize the femoral component, what is the most likely geometric consequence?

. Notching of the anterior femoral cortex
. Overstuffing of the patellofemoral joint
. Inadvertent tightening of the flexion gap
. Excessive laxity in the extension gap
. Elevation of the native joint line

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Notching of the anterior femoral cortex


Explanation

In a posterior referencing system, the posterior condylar cuts are kept constant regardless of component size to maintain the flexion gap. If the surgeon falls between sizes and downsizes the component, the anterior cut will be shifted posteriorly. This significantly increases the risk of creating a stress riser by notching the anterior femoral cortex.

Question 1405

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty, trial components are placed. The knee is symmetric and balanced in extension, but it is symmetrically tight in 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following is the most appropriate intraoperative step to balance the knee?

. Recut the distal femur to remove more bone
. Downsize the femoral component
. Release the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Release the posterior capsule
. Insert a thinner polyethylene insert

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Recut the distal femur to remove more bone


Explanation

A tight flexion gap with a balanced extension gap is addressed by decreasing the AP diameter of the femoral component (downsizing) or increasing the posterior tibial slope. Downsizing the femur increases the flexion gap without altering the extension gap.

Question 1406

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 78-year-old female presents with thigh pain and inability to bear weight after a mechanical fall. Radiographs demonstrate a periprosthetic femur fracture around the tip of her cemented total hip arthroplasty stem. The stem is grossly loose on imaging, and the proximal femoral bone stock is severely deficient with diaphyseal thinning.

What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. ORIF with cerclage cables
. ORIF with a lateral locking plate
. Revision to a fully porous coated cylindrical long stem
. Revision to a modular fluted tapered stem
. Impaction bone grafting alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ORIF with cerclage cables


Explanation

This describes a Vancouver B3 periprosthetic fracture, characterized by a loose stem and poor proximal bone stock. Management requires revision using a modular fluted tapered stem to bypass the deficient bone and achieve secure diaphyseal fixation.

Question 1407

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 45-year-old male who underwent a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty 4 years ago complains of a loud squeaking noise from his hip with every step. He denies pain or instability. Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for this phenomenon?

. High patient BMI
. Component malposition leading to edge loading
. The use of a small-diameter femoral head
. The presence of highly cross-linked polyethylene
. Use of a titanium alloy femoral stem

Correct Answer & Explanation

. High patient BMI


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is heavily associated with stripe wear caused by edge loading. This most commonly results from component malposition, specifically excessive acetabular cup anteversion or inclination.

Question 1408

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Postoperatively, a patient who underwent a primary total knee arthroplasty complains of anterior knee pain and a feeling of instability. Radiographs demonstrate lateral patellar tilt and subluxation. Which of the following errors during component positioning most likely contributed to this finding?

. External rotation of the femoral component
. Internal rotation of the femoral component
. Lateralization of the tibial tray
. Internal rotation of the tibial tray
. Valgus alignment of the proximal tibial cut

Correct Answer & Explanation

. External rotation of the femoral component


Explanation

Internal rotation of either the femoral or tibial components increases the Q-angle, which displaces the extensor mechanism laterally. This leads to lateral patellar maltracking, subluxation, and anterior knee pain.

Question 1409

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old female with a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty presents with new-onset groin pain and a palpable anterior mass. Laboratory evaluation shows normal CRP and ESR. An MRI with MARS sequencing reveals a large cystic pseudotumor. What is the primary pathophysiology underlying this complication?

. Type I immediate hypersensitivity
. Macrophage response to PMMA cement
. Type IV delayed hypersensitivity
. Endotoxin release from low-virulence bacteria
. Osteoclast overactivity due to stress shielding

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type I immediate hypersensitivity


Explanation

Adverse local tissue reaction (ALVAL) in metal-on-metal hips is fundamentally a Type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction to metal ions (cobalt and chromium), frequently presenting with a soft-tissue pseudotumor.

Question 1410

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 65-year-old male presents with persistent pain 3 years after a primary total knee arthroplasty. Serum ESR is 45 mm/hr and CRP is 25 mg/L. Synovial fluid aspiration yields a WBC count of 4,500 cells/μL with 85% PMNs. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
. Prescribe 6 weeks of targeted oral antibiotics
. Proceed directly to a 2-stage revision arthroplasty
. Proceed directly to a 1-stage revision arthroplasty
. Send synovial fluid for alpha-defensin and aerobic/anaerobic cultures
. Perform a debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Send synovial fluid for alpha-defensin and aerobic/anaerobic cultures


Explanation

A synovial WBC > 3,000 cells/μL and PMN > 80% is strongly suspicious for chronic periprosthetic joint infection (PJI). Confirmatory testing with cultures and specific biomarkers (like alpha-defensin) is required before definitive revision surgery.

Question 1411

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty. Postoperative templating reveals that the femoral offset was decreased by 15 mm compared to the contralateral native hip. What is the most likely clinical consequence of this biomechanical alteration?

. Increased joint reactive forces and Trendelenburg gait
. Decreased joint reactive forces and an antalgic gait
. Increased abductor mechanical advantage
. Increased risk of sciatic nerve palsy
. Increased functional leg length

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased joint reactive forces and Trendelenburg gait


Explanation

Decreasing femoral offset reduces the lever arm of the abductor musculature. This forces the abductors to generate more force to stabilize the pelvis, increasing overall joint reactive forces and frequently resulting in abductor weakness (Trendelenburg gait).

Question 1412

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Revision of a 20-year-old total knee arthroplasty reveals severe destruction of the polyethylene insert. The implant records indicate the polyethylene was sterilized by gamma irradiation in air. Which of the following wear mechanisms is predominantly responsible for this failure?

. Adhesive wear
. Abrasive wear
. Third-body wear
. Subsurface oxidation and delamination
. Galvanic corrosion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adhesive wear


Explanation

Polyethylene sterilized by gamma irradiation in an oxygen-rich environment (air) undergoes free radical formation and subsequent subsurface oxidation over time. This degrades the material properties, leading to catastrophic delamination wear.

Question 1413

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Six months after a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, a patient complains of a painful catching sensation in the knee when extending from a flexed position, specifically between 30 and 40 degrees of flexion. What is the most likely etiology?

. A loose tibial baseplate
. A fibrous nodule in the superior pole of the patella catching in the intercondylar box
. An oversized patellar button
. An undersized femoral component
. Impingement of the PCL against the tibial spine

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A loose tibial baseplate


Explanation

Patellar clunk syndrome occurs uniquely in posterior-stabilized TKAs. A fibrous nodule develops at the superior pole of the patella and catches in the intercondylar notch of the femoral component during extension, producing a painful 'clunk'.

Question 1414

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A patient sustains a fall 3 weeks after an uncomplicated primary total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs show a minimally displaced (<1 cm) fracture of the greater trochanter. The femoral stem remains perfectly aligned and well-fixed without evidence of subsidence. What is the most appropriate management?
. ORIF with cerclage cables
. ORIF with a locking plate and cables
. Revision total hip arthroplasty
. Protected weight bearing and strict abduction precautions
. Excision of the fractured greater trochanter fragment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Protected weight bearing and strict abduction precautions


Explanation

This is a Vancouver A (AG) periprosthetic fracture. Because it is minimally displaced and the stem is completely stable, it is best managed non-operatively with protected weight bearing and abduction precautions to allow healing.

Question 1415

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old patient presents for a 10-year follow-up after receiving a fully porous-coated, extensively fixed cylindrical stem total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs demonstrate excellent distal diaphyseal fixation but severe localized proximal medial bone resorption. The patient is entirely asymptomatic. What is the primary cause of this radiographic finding?

. Low-grade periprosthetic joint infection
. Osteolysis secondary to polyethylene wear debris
. Stress shielding
. Aseptic loosening of the component
. Iliopsoas impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Low-grade periprosthetic joint infection


Explanation

Extensively porous-coated stems achieve rigid distal fixation, effectively bypassing the proximal femur for load transfer. According to Wolff's law, this lack of mechanical stress leads to adaptive bone resorption known as stress shielding.

Question 1416

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Fourteen days after an elective total hip arthroplasty, a patient returns with a fever of 101.5°F, escalating hip pain, and a draining, erythematous surgical wound. Radiographs show perfectly positioned, well-fixed components. What is the most appropriate initial surgical intervention?

. Initiation of lifelong suppressive oral antibiotics without surgery
. Single-stage revision arthroplasty
. Two-stage revision arthroplasty with an antibiotic spacer
. Debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR) with modular head exchange
. Girdlestone resection arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Initiation of lifelong suppressive oral antibiotics without surgery


Explanation

DAIR is the treatment of choice for acute postoperative periprosthetic joint infections (occurring within 3-4 weeks of the index procedure) when the implants are well-fixed and soft tissues are amenable to coverage. Modular components (like the femoral head and poly liner) must be exchanged.

Question 1417

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old male is undergoing a total hip arthroplasty. The surgeon plans to use highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) to reduce wear. Which of the following manufacturing processes is critical to eliminate free radicals generated during the cross-linking process and prevent in vivo oxidative degradation?

. Gamma irradiation in air
. Ethylene oxide sterilization
. Remelting or annealing the polyethylene
. Adding a titanium backing
. Increasing the thickness of the polyethylene to greater than 10 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Gamma irradiation in air


Explanation

Remelting (heating above the melting point) or annealing (heating below the melting point) eliminates free radicals generated by gamma irradiation. This is crucial for preventing long-term oxidative degradation of the polyethylene.

Question 1418

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, the knee is balanced in extension but is found to be excessively tight in flexion, preventing full range of motion. The extension gap is symmetric and perfectly tensioned. Which of the following is the most appropriate step to correct this kinematic mismatch?

. Release the posterior capsule
. Increase the thickness of the polyethylene insert
. Downsize the femoral component
. Resect more proximal tibia
. Translate the femoral component anteriorly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Release the posterior capsule


Explanation

A tight flexion gap with a balanced extension gap implies the anteroposterior dimension of the femoral component is too large. Downsizing the femoral component (which decreases the posterior condylar offset) or increasing the posterior tibial slope will increase the flexion gap without affecting the extension gap.

Question 1419

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 78-year-old female sustains a periprosthetic femur fracture around her cementless total hip arthroplasty after a fall. Radiographs demonstrate a fracture around the tip of the stem. The stem is radiographically loose, and there is significant proximal osteolysis with poor bone stock in the proximal metaphysis. Which of the following is the most appropriate management (Vancouver Type B3)?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with cables and a locking plate
. Revision to a fully porous-coated standard length stem
. Revision to a modular fluted tapered stem that bypasses the fracture
. Proximal femoral replacement (megaprosthesis)
. Nonoperative management with a cast brace

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation with cables and a locking plate


Explanation

A Vancouver B3 fracture involves a loose stem and inadequate proximal bone stock. Proximal femoral replacement or a long modular fluted tapered stem with structural allograft are the preferred treatments to bypass the deficient bone and achieve stability.

Question 1420

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Which of the following biomechanical changes most effectively decreases the joint reactive force across the hip during a single-leg stance following a total hip arthroplasty?

. Decreasing the femoral offset
. Increasing the abductor moment arm
. Lateralizing the center of rotation of the acetabulum
. Decreasing the length of the femoral neck
. Increasing the patient's body weight

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreasing the femoral offset


Explanation

Increasing the abductor moment arm (typically by increasing femoral offset) provides a mechanical advantage to the abductor muscles. This reduces the force required by the abductors to maintain the pelvis level, thereby decreasing the overall joint reactive force.