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Question 1361

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 61-year-old man reports right hip pain and limited motion after undergoing total hip arthroplasty for posttraumatic arthritis 1 year ago. Figure 6 shows an AP radiograph of the pelvis. To improve motion and relieve pain, management should consist of
. surgical excision of heterotopic ossification and ethyl hydroxydiphosphonate at a dose of 20 mg/kg of body weight for 3 months.
. surgical excision of heterotopic ossification and irradiation of the right hip in a single dose of 400 Gy postoperatively.
. surgical excision of heterotopic ossification and irradiation of the right hip in a single dose of 700 Gy postoperatively.
. ethyl hydroxydiphosphonate at a dose of 20 mg/kg of body weight for 3 months.
. 25 mg of oral indomethacin administered three times a day for 10 days.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. surgical excision of heterotopic ossification and ethyl hydroxydiphosphonate at a dose of 20 mg/kg of body weight for 3 months.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has symptomatic grade IV Brooker heterotopic ossification. Once the bone has matured, it can be excised. Surgical excision should be combined with postoperative irradiation to avoid recurrence. Pharmacologic and irradiation intervention are not successful beyond the perioperative period unless they are combined with surgical excision of mature heterotopic ossification.

Question 1362

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 68-year-old man underwent a primary total hip arthroplasty 2 years ago for a femoral neck fracture. His early postoperative course was unremarkable, but he notes some aching in the thigh since surgery. His symptoms have gotten worse over the last year, such that he now has activity-related thigh pain that limits his walking ability. An AP hip radiograph is shown in Figure 9. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
. Revision of the femoral component
. No surgery is indicated
. Revision of the acetabular component
. Psoas tendon tenotomy
. Strut grafting of the femur to stiffen the bone near the tip of the implant

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision of the femoral component


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph shows a loose femoral component with failure of osseous integration. There is a reactive radiolucent line around the fiber mesh portion of the implant, hypertrophy of the bone under the collar, and a pedestal formation at the distal tip of the implant, all of which indicate failure of bone ingrowth. If bone ingrowth had occurred, there would be stress shielding of bone under the collar.

Question 1363

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Based on the type of articulation shown in Figure 32, wear is not affected by which of the following factors?
. Radial mismatch of the femoral head to the acetabular component
. Sphericity of the bearings
. Surface finish of the articulation
. Carbon content of the metal-on-metal bearing
. Head-to-neck ratio

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Head-to-neck ratio


Explanation

Discussion: Wear in total hip arthroplasty is a very complex phenomenon. The radial mismatch of the femoral head to the acetabular component has been shown in multiple studies to be a significant factor in wear. The mismatch can neither be too small nor too large. When the mismatch is too small, seizing of the implants can occur. When the mismatch is too large, contact stresses increase and produce exceptionally high wear. The ideal radial mismatch should be approximately 50 microns. Surface roughness and ball sphericity are two items that are extremely important with respect to wear. High carbon content has been shown to decrease wear. This device has a very large head-to-neck ratio, so impingement-related wear is unlikely.

Question 1364

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figures 1 and 2 demonstrate the radiographs obtained from a 35-year-old woman with end-stage debilitating osteoarthritis of the right hip. She is contemplating total hip arthroplasty (THA). She has a history of right hip dysplasia and underwent hip osteotomy as an adolescent. Over the years, nonsurgical treatment, including weight loss, activity modifications, and intra-articular injections, has failed. Her infection work-up reveals laboratory findings within defined limits. Which bearing surface is contraindicated for this patient?
. Ceramic-on-ceramic
. Ceramic-on-highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXPE)
. Metal-on-HXPE
. Metal-on-metal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metal-on-metal


Explanation

Discussion: THA has proven durable and reliable for pain relief and improving function for patients with end-stage arthritis. Appropriate bearing selection is critical to minimize wear and hip complications. A metal-on-metal articulation is associated with excellent wear rates in vitro. With its capacity to offer a low wear rate with large femoral heads, it is an attractive bearing choice for THA. However, local soft-tissue reactions, pseudotumors, and potential systemic reactions including renal failure, cardiomyopathy, carcinogenesis, and potential teratogenesis with potential transfer of metal ions across the placental barrier make metal-on-metal bearings less desirable and relatively contraindicated for younger women of child-bearing age.

Question 1365

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A 72-year-old woman has had progressively increasing pain in the right knee for the past 6 months. She denies any trauma and has no pain in any other joints, but she notes occasional swelling in the knee and a catching sensation. Figures 31a and 31b show the plain radiographs and Figure 31c shows the MRI scan. Treatment should consist of:
. arthroscopy and subtotal meniscectomy.
. arthroscopy and shaving chondroplasty.
. osteochondral bone graft.
. high tibial valgus osteotomy.
. total knee replacement.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. total knee replacement.


Explanation

Discussion: The plain radiograph shows a defect in the lateral femoral condyle and narrowing of the lateral joint space. The MRI scan shows a lesion consistent with osteonecrosis of the lateral femoral condyle. The treatment alternatives for this condition are an osteotomy or a total knee replacement, but a total knee replacement is the treatment of choice for a 72-year-old patient. Arthroscopy or an osteochondral bone graft will not address her symptoms. A valgus osteotomy will exacerbate the problem by overloading the lateral joint, which is already diseased.

Question 1366

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

What is the recommended optimal timing of presurgical antibiotic administration to prevent infection in patients undergoing total joint replacement surgery?

. Within 1 hour before incision
. Within 2 hours before incision
. Immediately after incision
. Within 1 hour after incision

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Within 1 hour before incision


Explanation

The current recommendation for antibiotic prophylaxis for major orthopaedic surgical procedures is to administer intravenous antibiotics within 1 hour of surgical incision. Redosing of antibiotics should occur 3 to 4 hours after the initial dose for procedures that extend beyond 3 to 4 hours. Little evidence supports postsurgical antibiotic use beyond 24 hours. As you move beyond 1 hour from time of administration of antibiotics, risk for infection increases and rates of bacterial cell death decline. It is not acceptable to administer presurgical antibiotics after incision.

Question 1367

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 65-year-old man who underwent cemented right total hip arthroplasty 6 years ago now reports acute pain for the past week. He denies any trauma, recent illnesses, or symptoms other than pain. Plain radiographs show possible loosening of the femoral component. A normal result from which of the following studies will most specifically rule out infection?
. Technetium Tc 99m bone scan
. Hip aspiration
. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP)
. WBC count
. MRI

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP)


Explanation

Discussion: A patient with an infected total hip arthroplasty may lack the symptoms of fever, chills, redness, or increased warmth typical of septic arthritis. Sensitivity for ESR and CRP ranges from 61% to 96%, and specificity ranges from 85% to 100%. Technetium Tc 99m bone scans are costly and time-consuming and will not differentiate between septic and aseptic loosening. Hip aspiration has a false-positive rate of up to 15%, although it may be useful in this patient to further complement the clinical picture if the ESR and CRP are elevated. The WBC count is rarely elevated in infected total hip arthroplasty. MRI is expensive and is not indicated for the diagnosis; however, it can aid in identifying intrapelvic extension of a periprosthetic abscess.

Question 1368

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

With respect to femoral component design, stress relief osteopenia in the proximal femur following noncemented total hip arthroplasty appears to be most strongly influenced by the

. stiffness of the femoral component.
. head offset of the femoral component.
. femoral component material modulus of elasticity.
. extent of the femoral component porous coating.
. Presence of a femoral component collar.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. stiffness of the femoral component.


Explanation

Stress relief changes seem to be most strongly related to component stiffness. However, stress relief changes are probably multifactoral and involve stiffness, location and extent of porous coating and the presence or absence of a collar. Host factors also influence stress relief.

Question 1369

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

What is the most common mode of failure following unconstrained total elbow arthroplasty? Review Topic

. Polyethylene wear
. Bushing wear
. Instability
. Component fracture
. Loosening of the humeral component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Polyethylene wear


Explanation

Elbow instability after placement of an unconstrained implant is most often the result of ligamentous insufficiency that can occur late after the index procedure. Instability can also occur from component malpositioning that creates undue stress to the collateral ligaments during the life of the prosthesis. Instability leads to revision surgery in many patients. Polyethylene wear and bushing wear are more common in linked and semiconstrained elbow arthroplasties. Loosening of humeral components may occur with aseptic or septic disease. Component fracture is uncommon.

Question 1370

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figures 100a and 100b are the radiographs of a 90-year-old woman who is seen in the emergency department after a fall from a height. She has right hip and thigh pain and is unable to bear weight. Based on this patient’s history and imaging, what is the best next step?
. Hip revision and implantation of a proximal femoral replacement
. Hip revision and implantation of a tapered fluted stem
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locked plate and allograft struts
. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein laboratory studies

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein laboratory studies


Explanation

Periprosthetic fractures are the third-most-common reason for revision surgery after total hip arthroplasty (THA). Risk for concomitant infection in the presence of a periprosthetic fracture is 11%. Obtaining presurgical aspiration or tissue for culture intrasurgically is recommended if concomitant infection is suspected. In a patient with a periprosthetic fracture, ruling out infection is a critical step in the workup.

Question 1371

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A 47-year-old obese man with a body mass index of 42 comes in with left knee pain 1 year after undergoing an uncomplicated left medial unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA). Radiographs show a loose tibial component in varus. What is the most appropriate next step to treat this failed construct?
. Aspiration of joint fluid to obtain a cell count
. Revision of the UKA using primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA) components
. Revision of the UKA using a revision TKA with augments
. Obtain erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obtain erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels


Explanation

This patient likely is experiencing failure of his UKA secondary to poor patient selection. This young, heavy man likely loosened his component secondary to the ongoing varus alignment of the knee and his elevated weight. Despite this likely scenario, the next step is to determine if an infection is the cause of his pain. Prior to obtaining an aspiration, the surgeon can order an ESR and CRP to determine if aspiration is warranted. If laboratory studies are unremarkable, the surgeon likely can forgo the aspiration and proceed to a revision TKA with possible augments on standby.

Question 1372

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 1 shows the radiograph of a 68-year-old man who underwent revision hip arthroplasty with impaction grafting of the femur and cementing of a tapered component into the graft 2 years ago. The patient remains symptom-free. Which of the following best describes the most likely histologic appearance of the proximal femur if a biopsy was performed?
. Complete restoration of the cortex, with interdigitation of cement into the patient’s native bone
. Fibrous membrane encapsulating the stem, surrounded by a cement mantle and dead allograft
. Healing by mixed endochondral ossification, similar to fracture healing, surrounding the cement mantle
. Allograft resorption, with some cortical restoration because of osteoinduction
. Viable trabecular bone resulting from incorporation and remodeling of allograft

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Viable trabecular bone resulting from incorporation and remodeling of allograft


Explanation

The radiograph shows three zones: an outer regenerated cortical layer, an interface zone consisting of viable trabecular bone and occasional particles of bone cement, and an inner layer of necrotic bone embedded in cement. No fibrous membrane is noted, and there is no direct contact of cement with native bone. Based on these findings, it is believed that the middle layer is the result of incorporation of the allograft with further remodeling.

Question 1373

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Which of the following surgical options after resection of a sarcoma about the knee would require a patient to expend the greatest amount of energy while walking?

. Arthrodesis
. Rotationplasty
. Above-knee amputation
. Osteoarticular allograft
. Endoprosthesis (custom arthroplasty)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthrodesis


Explanation

Discussion: The answer to this question is based on a study by Harris which tested the effeciency , rate and percent of max rate in ambulation in amputees, those with arthrodeses and arthroplasties. They found that Above knee amputees expended the most energy, followed by arthrodesis patients, and then arthroplasty patients.

Question 1374

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A patient presents with a chronic quadriceps tendon rupture after total knee arthroplasty. Two previous primary repair attempts have failed. The patient has an unstable knee. Aspiration of the right knee reveals hazy yellow fluid with a white blood cell count of 120 and 1% neutrophils. No growth of organisms is seen on routine culture. What is the best next step?
. Revision total knee arthroplasty with extensor mechanism allograft
. Revision total knee arthroplasty with liner change and primary quadriceps repair
. Resection knee arthroplasty and arthrodesis with antegrade nail
. Two-stage revision total knee arthroplasty with extensor mechanism allograft

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision total knee arthroplasty with extensor mechanism allograft


Explanation

Discussion: This patient has a chronic quadriceps tendon rupture after total knee arthroplasty. Two previous primary repair attempts have failed. The patient also has an unstable knee and will require revision of some or all of the prosthesis to achieve a stable knee. Revision total knee arthroplasty with extensor mechanism allograft allows an allograft reconstruction of the ruptured quadriceps tendon. Two-stage revision total knee arthroplasty with extensor mechanism allograft is not the best option because the laboratory results show no signs of infection, so a single-stage procedure is preferred.

Question 1375

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 65-year-old woman has nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distention after undergoing total knee arthroplasty 48 hours ago. An abdominal radiograph is shown. Associated risk factors for this disorder include:
. hypokalemia.
. administration of warfarin.
. administration of antibiotics.
. general anesthesia.
. early mobilization and physical therapy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. hypokalemia.


Explanation

Discussion: The prevalence of postoperative ileus associated with total joint arthroplasty has been reported to be as high as 3%. Metabolic abnormalities such as hypokalemia are believed to contribute to the onset of ileus and Ogilvie’s syndrome (acute pseudo-obstruction of the colon). Prolonged bed rest also has been associated with the development of ileus and Ogilvie’s syndrome.

Question 1376

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Arthrodesis

. Repair of the rotator cuff
. Replacement of the humeral head
. Resection arthroplasty
. Total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Repair of the rotator cuff


Explanation

Long term prospective study involving 67 humeral head replacements for OA &RA. "Based on this experience, we would recommend that humeral head replacement alone be used sparingly in patientswith OA or RA. Certainly in patients who have glenoid bone deficiency precluding placement of a glenoid component…" as is apparent in this radiograph.

Question 1377

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 49 shows a histologic section of the lung in a patient who died during total hip arthroplasty. What unexpected finding is seen in the pulmonary capillaries?
. Pulmonary embolism
. Methylmethacrylate cement
. Hemorrhagic infarct
. Granuloma formation
. Amyloid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Methylmethacrylate cement


Explanation

Sudden death during total hip arthroplasty has been reported. In a report from the Mayo Clinic, intraoperative death occurred during cemented total hip arthroplasty in 23 patients. Fat and marrow embolization during preparation of the femur or cementing of the femoral component was believed to be responsible for the cardiopulmonary collapse that occurred during arthroplasty. Although fat and marrow emboli were found in the pulmonary capillaries of most of the patients on autopsy, this histologic section shows two particles of cement in the pulmonary capillaries.

Question 1378

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 72-year-old man with a history of Parkinson’s disease, stable coronary artery disease, and mild renal insufficiency is seen for hip arthroplasty. Which of the following is considered the most appropriate bearing of choice?
. Ceramic-on-ceramic
. Large diameter metal head on highly cross-linked polyethylene liner
. Ceramic head on metal liner
. Large diameter metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty
. Metal on conventional polyethylene liner (noncross-linked)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Large diameter metal head on highly cross-linked polyethylene liner


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The most appropriate bearing of those listed would be a large diameter metal head on cross-linked polyethylene. Because of the renal insufficiency, metal-on-metal should be avoided because metal ions are renally excreted. Ceramic-on-ceramic implants are not necessary in this patient because of the patient’s limited activity and life expectancy, as well as the downside of increased cost, the small but definite risk of ceramic fracture, and the increased technical demands of inserting ceramic implants. A highly cross-linked liner is favored to allow for maximum head size as the patient may be at increased risk of dislocation because of his neurologic disorder. REFERENCES: Bragdon CR, Greene ME, Freiberg AA, et al: Radiostereometric analysis comparison of wear of highly cross-linked polyethylene against 36- vs 28-mm femoral heads. J Arthroplasty 2007;22:125-129. MacDonald SJ: Metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty: The concerns. Clin Orthop Relat Res 2004;429:86-93.

Question 1379

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 55-year-old man underwent cementless total hip arthroplasty for advanced painful osteoarthritis of the hip 2 years ago. The follow-up radiograph shows:
. spot welds and calcar atrophy.
. subsidence.
. distal cortical hypertrophy.
. distal pedestal formation.
. complete lucent line around the stem.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. spot welds and calcar atrophy.


Explanation

The radiograph shows a well-osseointegrated tapered stem with a metaphyseal porous coating, spot welds in the porous region, and calcar rounding. Trochanteric stress shielding and distal cortical hypertrophy are also signs of ingrown stems but are seen more frequently in association with extensively porous-coated stems exhibiting diaphyseal ingrowth. There is no evidence of lucent lines or a pedestal, signs that suggest instability. Femoral stem subsidence can be determined only by a review of sequential radiographs.

Question 1380

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
Consider the theoretic articulation shown as femoral and tibial components of a total knee prosthesis in which the components fit like a “roller in trough.” Which of the following best describes the articulation?
. Constrained to anteroposterior translation, unconstrained to medial-lateral translation, high contact stress on edge (ie, varus-valgus) loading
. Constrained to anteroposterior translation, unconstrained to medial-lateral translation, low contact stress on edge (ie, varus-valgus) loading
. Unconstrained to anteroposterior translation, constrained to medial-lateral translation, high contact stress on edge (ie, varus-valgus) loading
. Unconstrained to anteroposterior translation, constrained to medial-lateral translation, low contact stress on edge (ie, varus-valgus) loading
. Constraint is dependent on the status of the posterior cruciate ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Constrained to anteroposterior translation, unconstrained to medial-lateral translation, high contact stress on edge (ie, varus-valgus) loading


Explanation

The theoretic total knee components will resist anteroposterior motion by making the femoral component “climb the walls” of the tibial component. As drawn, there is no constraint to medial-lateral translation. The cylinder is not rounded on the edges, so varus-valgus motion will impart load from the cylinder to the trough over a small area, thus having a high contact stress.