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Question 61

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old man is scheduled for an elective total hip arthroplasty under spinal anesthesia. He is receiving prophylactic doses of low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH). According to current guidelines, how long before the spinal block should the last dose of LMWH be administered?

. 6 hours
. 12 hours
. 24 hours
. 48 hours
. 72 hours

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 12 hours


Explanation

To minimize the risk of a spinal epidural hematoma, guidelines recommend that prophylactic (low-dose) LMWH be discontinued at least 12 hours prior to neuraxial anesthesia placement.

Question 62

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 70-year-old male with severe COPD is being evaluated preoperatively for a total knee arthroplasty. Which pulmonary function test parameter is considered the strongest predictor of significant postoperative pulmonary complications?

. Forced vital capacity (FVC) less than 80%
. FEV1 less than 50% of predicted
. Total lung capacity (TLC) greater than 120%
. DLCO less than 80%
. Elevation of residual volume (RV)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. FEV1 less than 50% of predicted


Explanation

An FEV1 of less than 50% of the predicted value is a well-established and highly reliable indicator of increased risk for postoperative pulmonary complications in non-cardiothoracic surgeries.

Question 63

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old woman undergoes an uncomplicated elective total hip arthroplasty. According to major societal guidelines (AAOS/ACCP), what is the minimum recommended duration for pharmacologic venous thromboembolism (VTE) prophylaxis postoperatively?

. 5 to 7 days
. 10 to 14 days
. 21 days
. 28 to 35 days
. 6 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 10 to 14 days


Explanation

Current guidelines recommend a minimum of 10 to 14 days of VTE prophylaxis following major orthopedic surgery such as total hip arthroplasty, with many protocols suggesting extension up to 35 days for high-risk patients.

Question 64

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old woman on postoperative day 3 following a total knee arthroplasty presents with sudden onset dyspnea, tachypnea, and pleuritic chest pain. ECG shows sinus tachycardia and an S1Q3T3 pattern. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

. D-dimer assay
. CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA)
. Transthoracic echocardiogram
. Venous doppler ultrasound of the lower limbs
. Chest radiograph

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA)


Explanation

The clinical presentation is highly suspicious for a pulmonary embolism. CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is the gold standard and most appropriate initial imaging test to confirm the presence of pulmonary emboli in the postoperative setting.

Question 65

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a revision total hip arthroplasty for recurrent posterior instability, the surgeon notes that the existing acetabular component is well-fixed but positioned in 0 degrees of anteversion. The femoral component is well-fixed with 15 degrees of anteversion. What is the most appropriate management?

. Revise the femoral component to increase anteversion
. Revise the acetabular component to increase anteversion
. Cement a constrained liner into the existing shell
. Perform a greater trochanteric advancement
. Prescribe a post-operative abduction brace only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revise the acetabular component to increase anteversion


Explanation

The acetabular component is malpositioned in retroversion (0 degrees), predisposing the patient to posterior instability. The most appropriate and anatomic management is revising the acetabular component to achieve optimal anteversion (15-20 degrees).

Question 66

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In a patient undergoing revision total hip arthroplasty (THA) for aseptic loosening, the presence of particulate polyethylene debris is noted. What is the primary biological mechanism mediating the resulting osteolysis?

. Neutrophil-mediated direct cartilage destruction
. Macrophage phagocytosis leading to cytokine release (TNF-alpha, IL-1)
. T-cell mediated delayed hypersensitivity
. Complement cascade activation
. Osteoblast apoptosis triggered by direct particle toxicity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Macrophage phagocytosis leading to cytokine release (TNF-alpha, IL-1)


Explanation

Aseptic loosening due to particulate wear debris is driven by macrophages that phagocytose the particles and release cytokines such as TNF-alpha and IL-1. These cytokines stimulate osteoclastogenesis and inhibit osteoblasts, leading to osteolysis.

Question 67

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In total hip arthroplasty, which bearing surface combination offers the lowest linear wear rate but carries a risk of squeaking and catastrophic fracture?

. Cobalt-chrome on highly cross-linked polyethylene
. Ceramic on ceramic
. Ceramic on highly cross-linked polyethylene
. Cobalt-chrome on conventional polyethylene
. Oxinium on highly cross-linked polyethylene

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ceramic on ceramic


Explanation

Ceramic-on-ceramic bearings have the lowest wear rates among THA options. However, they are associated with unique complications including catastrophic bearing fracture and squeaking.

Question 68

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 78-year-old woman with a history of a primary total hip arthroplasty (THA) 10 years ago presents with her third posterior dislocation in the past 6 months. Radiographs and CT show well-fixed components with appropriate anteversion and inclination. Intraoperative assessment reveals severely deficient abductor musculature. Which of the following surgical options is most appropriate?

. Revision of the acetabular shell to increase anteversion
. Revision to a constrained acetabular liner or dual mobility construct
. Revision to a larger femoral head with a standard liner
. Application of an abduction brace for 12 weeks
. Femoral component revision with a high-offset neck

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a constrained acetabular liner or dual mobility construct


Explanation

For recurrent instability in the setting of well-positioned and well-fixed components, particularly with abductor deficiency, a constrained acetabular liner or a dual mobility construct is the most appropriate surgical treatment to maximize stability.

Question 69

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In total hip arthroplasty, which of the following bearing surface combinations offers the lowest wear rate but the highest risk of catastrophic failure from brittle fracture?

. Metal-on-polyethylene
. Ceramic-on-polyethylene
. Metal-on-metal
. Ceramic-on-ceramic
. Oxinium-on-polyethylene

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ceramic-on-ceramic


Explanation

Ceramic-on-ceramic bearings have the lowest volumetric wear rate and no associated metal ion release. However, they carry a unique risk of squeaking and catastrophic brittle fracture.

Question 70

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old female undergoes total hip arthroplasty. During the informed consent, she asks about the lowest wear rate among bearing surfaces. Which of the following bearing surface combinations offers the lowest volumetric wear rate?

. Metal-on-polyethylene
. Ceramic-on-polyethylene
. Ceramic-on-ceramic
. Metal-on-metal
. Oxidized zirconium-on-polyethylene

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ceramic-on-ceramic


Explanation

Ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surfaces offer the lowest volumetric wear rates of all available combinations. They are extremely hard and scratch-resistant but carry specific risks such as squeaking and catastrophic component fracture.

Question 71

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

When performing a total knee arthroplasty, balancing the flexion and extension gaps is critical. If the extension gap is tight but the flexion gap is well-balanced, which of the following steps is the most appropriate next action?

. Downsize the femoral component
. Resect more proximal tibia
. Release the posterior capsule
. Increase the tibial polyethylene thickness
. Translate the femoral component anteriorly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Release the posterior capsule


Explanation

A tight extension gap with a balanced flexion gap requires addressing structures that only affect extension. Releasing the posterior capsule or resecting more distal femur will open the extension gap without significantly altering the flexion gap.

Question 72

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 45-year-old man with long-standing Ankylosing Spondylitis presents for pre-operative evaluation before a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following pulmonary function test patterns is most characteristic of his systemic disease?

. Obstructive pattern with increased total lung capacity (TLC)
. Restrictive pattern with decreased TLC and a normal FEV1/FVC ratio
. Normal spirometry with decreased diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide (DLCO)
. Obstructive pattern with decreased FEV1/FVC ratio
. Restrictive pattern with increased residual volume

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Restrictive pattern with decreased TLC and a normal FEV1/FVC ratio


Explanation

Ankylosing spondylitis typically causes fusion of the costovertebral joints, leading to a rigid chest wall. This results in a classic restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests with a normal FEV1/FVC ratio and reduced TLC.

Question 73

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

According to the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons (AAOS) clinical practice guidelines, which of the following is an acceptable primary pharmacologic agent for the prevention of symptomatic pulmonary embolism following elective total knee arthroplasty in a standard-risk patient?

. Aspirin
. Clopidogrel
. Unfractionated heparin continuous infusion
. Tranexamic acid
. Dipyridamole

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aspirin


Explanation

The AAOS guidelines support the use of Aspirin as a primary prophylactic agent against venous thromboembolism in standard-risk patients undergoing elective total joint arthroplasty.

Question 74

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 65-year-old woman undergoes a total hip arthroplasty (THA) via a posterior approach. Postoperatively, she suffers recurrent posterior dislocations. Radiographs reveal the acetabular cup is placed in 30 degrees of inclination and 5 degrees of retroversion. Which surgical adjustment is most appropriate to stabilize the joint?

. Increase anteversion of the acetabular cup
. Increase retroversion of the acetabular cup
. Increase inclination of the acetabular cup
. Decrease anteversion of the acetabular cup
. Change to a smaller femoral head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increase anteversion of the acetabular cup


Explanation

A cup placed in retroversion predisposes the patient to posterior instability following a THA. The most appropriate surgical adjustment is to revise the component to increase its anteversion, targeting the Lewinnek safe zone of 15 (+/- 10) degrees.

Question 75

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 68-year-old woman presents with her third posterior dislocation of a total hip arthroplasty (THA) performed 6 weeks ago via a posterior approach. Radiographs demonstrate well-fixed components with the acetabular cup in 45 degrees of abduction and 0 degrees of anteversion. What is the most likely primary cause of her recurrent instability?

. Abductor mechanism deficiency
. Inadequate acetabular component anteversion
. Excessive femoral offset
. Inadequate acetabular component abduction
. Polyethylene liner wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inadequate acetabular component anteversion


Explanation

The patient's recurrent posterior dislocations are primarily due to inadequate acetabular anteversion (0 degrees). The safe zone for acetabular component placement is generally considered to be 15 +/- 10 degrees of anteversion and 40 +/- 10 degrees of abduction.

Question 76

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old female undergoes a total hip arthroplasty. During cement pressurization and insertion of the femoral stem, she experiences a sudden drop in end-tidal CO2 and oxygen saturation, accompanied by hypotension. Which of the following is the primary pathophysiological mechanism for this event?

. Anaphylactic reaction to the polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA)
. Embolization of marrow fat and contents into the venous circulation
. Acute myocardial infarction due to surgical stress
. Rapid systemic absorption of local anesthetic
. Iatrogenic injury to the external iliac artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Embolization of marrow fat and contents into the venous circulation


Explanation

Bone cement implantation syndrome is primarily caused by the embolization of fat, bone marrow, and cement into the venous circulation during pressurization. This leads to sudden right heart strain, hypoxia, and hypotension.

Question 77

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old woman undergoes a posterior approach total hip arthroplasty for severe osteoarthritis. Postoperatively, she is noted to have a foot drop, weak ankle dorsiflexion, and decreased sensation over the first web space. Which nerve was most likely injured intraoperatively?

. Femoral nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve
. Tibial division of the sciatic nerve
. Obturator nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve


Explanation

The common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve is highly susceptible to traction injury during total hip arthroplasty, especially with leg lengthening or overzealous posterior retractor placement.

Question 78

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old female presents with progressive groin pain 12 years after a cementless total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs reveal significant eccentric wear of the polyethylene liner and periprosthetic osteolysis. What particle size of polyethylene wear debris is most biologically active in initiating this macrophage-mediated response?

. 0.01 to 0.05 micrometers
. 0.1 to 1.0 micrometers
. 5 to 10 micrometers
. 10 to 50 micrometers
. Greater than 100 micrometers

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 0.1 to 1.0 micrometers


Explanation

Polyethylene wear particles between 0.1 and 1.0 micrometers are the most biologically active. They are phagocytosed by macrophages, triggering the release of inflammatory cytokines (IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha) that stimulate osteoclast-mediated bone resorption.

Question 79

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 72-year-old male complains of a chronically painful knee 3 years after a primary total knee arthroplasty. According to the Musculoskeletal Infection Society (MSIS) criteria, what minimum synovial fluid white blood cell (WBC) count is highly suggestive of a chronic periprosthetic joint infection in a knee > 1 year post-op?
. > 500 cells/uL
. > 1,500 cells/uL
. > 3,000 cells/uL
. > 10,000 cells/uL
. > 50,000 cells/uL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. > 3,000 cells/uL


Explanation

For chronic periprosthetic joint infections (> 1 year post-op), a synovial fluid WBC count greater than 3,000 cells/uL (and > 80% polymorphonuclear cells) is a major threshold criterion according to standard MSIS guidelines.

Question 80

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 40-year-old male with a history of chronic systemic corticosteroid use presents with progressive hip pain. MRI reveals a crescent sign in the anterosuperior aspect of the femoral head, without subchondral collapse (Ficat Stage II). What is the most appropriate joint-preserving surgical intervention?

. Total hip arthroplasty
. Core decompression of the femoral head
. Resurfacing hip arthroplasty
. Proximal femoral varus osteotomy
. Hip arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Core decompression of the femoral head


Explanation

For pre-collapse (Ficat Stage I or II) avascular necrosis of the femoral head, core decompression is indicated. It aims to reduce intraosseous pressure, relieve pain, and stimulate revascularization.