This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee). Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 61
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 65-year-old man is scheduled for an elective total hip arthroplasty under spinal anesthesia. He is receiving prophylactic doses of low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH). According to current guidelines, how long before the spinal block should the last dose of LMWH be administered?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 12 hours
Explanation
To minimize the risk of a spinal epidural hematoma, guidelines recommend that prophylactic (low-dose) LMWH be discontinued at least 12 hours prior to neuraxial anesthesia placement.
Question 62
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 70-year-old male with severe COPD is being evaluated preoperatively for a total knee arthroplasty. Which pulmonary function test parameter is considered the strongest predictor of significant postoperative pulmonary complications?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. FEV1 less than 50% of predicted
Explanation
An FEV1 of less than 50% of the predicted value is a well-established and highly reliable indicator of increased risk for postoperative pulmonary complications in non-cardiothoracic surgeries.
Question 63
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 65-year-old woman undergoes an uncomplicated elective total hip arthroplasty. According to major societal guidelines (AAOS/ACCP), what is the minimum recommended duration for pharmacologic venous thromboembolism (VTE) prophylaxis postoperatively?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 10 to 14 days
Explanation
Current guidelines recommend a minimum of 10 to 14 days of VTE prophylaxis following major orthopedic surgery such as total hip arthroplasty, with many protocols suggesting extension up to 35 days for high-risk patients.
Question 64
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 68-year-old woman on postoperative day 3 following a total knee arthroplasty presents with sudden onset dyspnea, tachypnea, and pleuritic chest pain. ECG shows sinus tachycardia and an S1Q3T3 pattern. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA)
Explanation
The clinical presentation is highly suspicious for a pulmonary embolism. CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is the gold standard and most appropriate initial imaging test to confirm the presence of pulmonary emboli in the postoperative setting.
Question 65
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a revision total hip arthroplasty for recurrent posterior instability, the surgeon notes that the existing acetabular component is well-fixed but positioned in 0 degrees of anteversion. The femoral component is well-fixed with 15 degrees of anteversion. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Revise the acetabular component to increase anteversion
Explanation
The acetabular component is malpositioned in retroversion (0 degrees), predisposing the patient to posterior instability. The most appropriate and anatomic management is revising the acetabular component to achieve optimal anteversion (15-20 degrees).
Question 66
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In a patient undergoing revision total hip arthroplasty (THA) for aseptic loosening, the presence of particulate polyethylene debris is noted. What is the primary biological mechanism mediating the resulting osteolysis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Macrophage phagocytosis leading to cytokine release (TNF-alpha, IL-1)
Explanation
Aseptic loosening due to particulate wear debris is driven by macrophages that phagocytose the particles and release cytokines such as TNF-alpha and IL-1. These cytokines stimulate osteoclastogenesis and inhibit osteoblasts, leading to osteolysis.
Question 67
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In total hip arthroplasty, which bearing surface combination offers the lowest linear wear rate but carries a risk of squeaking and catastrophic fracture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ceramic on ceramic
Explanation
Ceramic-on-ceramic bearings have the lowest wear rates among THA options. However, they are associated with unique complications including catastrophic bearing fracture and squeaking.
Question 68
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 78-year-old woman with a history of a primary total hip arthroplasty (THA) 10 years ago presents with her third posterior dislocation in the past 6 months. Radiographs and CT show well-fixed components with appropriate anteversion and inclination. Intraoperative assessment reveals severely deficient abductor musculature. Which of the following surgical options is most appropriate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Revision to a constrained acetabular liner or dual mobility construct
Explanation
For recurrent instability in the setting of well-positioned and well-fixed components, particularly with abductor deficiency, a constrained acetabular liner or a dual mobility construct is the most appropriate surgical treatment to maximize stability.
Question 69
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In total hip arthroplasty, which of the following bearing surface combinations offers the lowest wear rate but the highest risk of catastrophic failure from brittle fracture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ceramic-on-ceramic
Explanation
Ceramic-on-ceramic bearings have the lowest volumetric wear rate and no associated metal ion release. However, they carry a unique risk of squeaking and catastrophic brittle fracture.
Question 70
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 65-year-old female undergoes total hip arthroplasty. During the informed consent, she asks about the lowest wear rate among bearing surfaces. Which of the following bearing surface combinations offers the lowest volumetric wear rate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ceramic-on-ceramic
Explanation
Ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surfaces offer the lowest volumetric wear rates of all available combinations. They are extremely hard and scratch-resistant but carry specific risks such as squeaking and catastrophic component fracture.
Question 71
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
When performing a total knee arthroplasty, balancing the flexion and extension gaps is critical. If the extension gap is tight but the flexion gap is well-balanced, which of the following steps is the most appropriate next action?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Release the posterior capsule
Explanation
A tight extension gap with a balanced flexion gap requires addressing structures that only affect extension. Releasing the posterior capsule or resecting more distal femur will open the extension gap without significantly altering the flexion gap.
Question 72
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 45-year-old man with long-standing Ankylosing Spondylitis presents for pre-operative evaluation before a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following pulmonary function test patterns is most characteristic of his systemic disease?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Restrictive pattern with decreased TLC and a normal FEV1/FVC ratio
Explanation
Ankylosing spondylitis typically causes fusion of the costovertebral joints, leading to a rigid chest wall. This results in a classic restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests with a normal FEV1/FVC ratio and reduced TLC.
Question 73
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
According to the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons (AAOS) clinical practice guidelines, which of the following is an acceptable primary pharmacologic agent for the prevention of symptomatic pulmonary embolism following elective total knee arthroplasty in a standard-risk patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Aspirin
Explanation
The AAOS guidelines support the use of Aspirin as a primary prophylactic agent against venous thromboembolism in standard-risk patients undergoing elective total joint arthroplasty.
Question 74
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 65-year-old woman undergoes a total hip arthroplasty (THA) via a posterior approach. Postoperatively, she suffers recurrent posterior dislocations. Radiographs reveal the acetabular cup is placed in 30 degrees of inclination and 5 degrees of retroversion. Which surgical adjustment is most appropriate to stabilize the joint?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increase anteversion of the acetabular cup
Explanation
A cup placed in retroversion predisposes the patient to posterior instability following a THA. The most appropriate surgical adjustment is to revise the component to increase its anteversion, targeting the Lewinnek safe zone of 15 (+/- 10) degrees.
Question 75
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 68-year-old woman presents with her third posterior dislocation of a total hip arthroplasty (THA) performed 6 weeks ago via a posterior approach. Radiographs demonstrate well-fixed components with the acetabular cup in 45 degrees of abduction and 0 degrees of anteversion. What is the most likely primary cause of her recurrent instability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inadequate acetabular component anteversion
Explanation
The patient's recurrent posterior dislocations are primarily due to inadequate acetabular anteversion (0 degrees). The safe zone for acetabular component placement is generally considered to be 15 +/- 10 degrees of anteversion and 40 +/- 10 degrees of abduction.
Question 76
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 60-year-old female undergoes a total hip arthroplasty. During cement pressurization and insertion of the femoral stem, she experiences a sudden drop in end-tidal CO2 and oxygen saturation, accompanied by hypotension. Which of the following is the primary pathophysiological mechanism for this event?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Embolization of marrow fat and contents into the venous circulation
Explanation
Bone cement implantation syndrome is primarily caused by the embolization of fat, bone marrow, and cement into the venous circulation during pressurization. This leads to sudden right heart strain, hypoxia, and hypotension.
Question 77
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 72-year-old woman undergoes a posterior approach total hip arthroplasty for severe osteoarthritis. Postoperatively, she is noted to have a foot drop, weak ankle dorsiflexion, and decreased sensation over the first web space. Which nerve was most likely injured intraoperatively?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve
Explanation
The common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve is highly susceptible to traction injury during total hip arthroplasty, especially with leg lengthening or overzealous posterior retractor placement.
Question 78
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 68-year-old female presents with progressive groin pain 12 years after a cementless total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs reveal significant eccentric wear of the polyethylene liner and periprosthetic osteolysis. What particle size of polyethylene wear debris is most biologically active in initiating this macrophage-mediated response?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 0.1 to 1.0 micrometers
Explanation
Polyethylene wear particles between 0.1 and 1.0 micrometers are the most biologically active. They are phagocytosed by macrophages, triggering the release of inflammatory cytokines (IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha) that stimulate osteoclast-mediated bone resorption.
Question 79
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 72-year-old male complains of a chronically painful knee 3 years after a primary total knee arthroplasty. According to the Musculoskeletal Infection Society (MSIS) criteria, what minimum synovial fluid white blood cell (WBC) count is highly suggestive of a chronic periprosthetic joint infection in a knee > 1 year post-op?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. > 3,000 cells/uL
Explanation
For chronic periprosthetic joint infections (> 1 year post-op), a synovial fluid WBC count greater than 3,000 cells/uL (and > 80% polymorphonuclear cells) is a major threshold criterion according to standard MSIS guidelines.
Question 80
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 40-year-old male with a history of chronic systemic corticosteroid use presents with progressive hip pain. MRI reveals a crescent sign in the anterosuperior aspect of the femoral head, without subchondral collapse (Ficat Stage II). What is the most appropriate joint-preserving surgical intervention?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Core decompression of the femoral head
Explanation
For pre-collapse (Ficat Stage I or II) avascular necrosis of the femoral head, core decompression is indicated. It aims to reduce intraosseous pressure, relieve pain, and stimulate revascularization.
Test Yourself
Switch to an interactive, timed exam simulation to truly master this topic.