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Question 6401

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old female sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture after a mechanical fall. She is at high risk for avascular necrosis of the femoral head. Disruption of which of the following vessels is primarily responsible for this complication?

. Artery of the ligamentum teres
. Lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Medial femoral circumflex artery
. Inferior gluteal artery
. First perforating branch of the profunda femoris

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial femoral circumflex artery


Explanation

Correct Answer: Medial femoral circumflex arteryThe primary blood supply to the adult femoral head is derived from the ascending cervical branches of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA), particularly the lateral epiphyseal artery. Displaced femoral neck fractures disrupt this intracapsular blood supply, leading to a high rate of avascular necrosis and nonunion, which is why arthroplasty is often preferred over internal fixation in the elderly population.

Question 6402

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old male undergoes a total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach for severe osteoarthritis. Postoperatively, he is counseled on hip precautions to prevent the most common early complication. Which combination of hip movements places this patient at the highest risk for this complication?

. Extension, abduction, and external rotation
. Flexion, adduction, and internal rotation
. Flexion, abduction, and external rotation
. Extension, adduction, and internal rotation
. Neutral flexion with extreme abduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Flexion, adduction, and internal rotation


Explanation

Correct Answer: Flexion, adduction, and internal rotationPostoperative dislocation is the most common early complication following total hip arthroplasty. When a posterior surgical approach is utilized, the posterior soft tissue envelope is violated. Consequently, the hip is most unstable posteriorly, and the position of maximum risk for a posterior dislocation is a combination of hip flexion, adduction, and internal rotation.

Question 6403

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 75-year-old female presents to the emergency department after a mechanical fall. On examination, her right lower extremity is shortened and externally rotated. Radiographs reveal a displaced intracapsular femoral neck fracture. If this fracture is treated with internal fixation, which of the following is the most significant complication associated with this specific injury?

. Post-traumatic osteoarthritis of the acetabulum
. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
. Sciatic nerve palsy
. Heterotopic ossification
. Nonunion of the greater trochanter

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head


Explanation

Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis of the femoral headDisplaced intracapsular femoral neck fractures disrupt the precarious blood supply to the femoral head, which is primarily derived from the medial femoral circumflex artery. This disruption leads to a high risk of avascular necrosis (osteonecrosis) and nonunion. Because of these high complication rates, displaced femoral neck fractures in the elderly are typically treated with arthroplasty (hemiarthroplasty or total hip arthroplasty) rather than internal fixation.

Question 6404

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a total knee arthroplasty (TKA), after making the initial bony cuts and inserting trial components, the surgeon observes that the knee is excessively tight in flexion but perfectly balanced in extension. Which of the following surgical interventions is the most appropriate next step to correct this mismatch?

. Recut the distal femur to resect more bone
. Release the posterior capsule
. Increase the size of the tibial polyethylene insert
. Decrease the anteroposterior (AP) size of the femoral component
. Resect more bone from the proximal tibia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decrease the anteroposterior (AP) size of the femoral component


Explanation

A knee that is tight in flexion but balanced in extension requires an adjustment that solely increases the flexion gap. Downsizing the femoral component decreases the posterior condylar offset, thereby enlarging the flexion gap without altering the extension gap.

Question 6405

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty for a severe varus deformity, the surgeon notes the knee is balanced in flexion but remains tight medially in extension. Which of the following structures should be released next to correct this specific asymmetry?

. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Anterior portion of the superficial medial collateral ligament
. Posteromedial capsule
. Popliteus tendon
. Lateral collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posteromedial capsule


Explanation

A knee that is tight medially in extension but balanced in flexion during TKA requires release of structures affecting the extension gap, primarily the posteromedial capsule. Releasing the anterior superficial MCL would disproportionately loosen the flexion gap.

Question 6406

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 28-year-old female with a known history of Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED) presents with severe, debilitating bilateral hip pain. Radiographs show end-stage secondary osteoarthritis of both hips with flattened femoral heads, loss of joint space, and incongruent joints. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Bilateral proximal femoral osteotomies
. Bilateral total hip arthroplasty
. Core decompression
. Hip arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bilateral total hip arthroplasty


Explanation

Correct Answer: Bilateral total hip arthroplastyPatients with Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED) frequently develop premature osteoarthritis in early adulthood due to joint incongruity. Once end-stage osteoarthritis has developed, total joint arthroplasty (THA) is the definitive and most successful treatment. Osteotomies are reserved for younger patients with malalignment before the onset of severe degenerative changes.

Question 6407

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 14-year-old male with Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia presents with bilateral hip pain. Radiographs show flattened, irregular capital femoral epiphyses with early signs of secondary osteoarthritis, but the acetabula are relatively well-preserved. If surgical intervention is considered to prolong the lifespan of the native hip, which of the following is the most appropriate rationale for an intertrochanteric osteotomy in this patient?

. To stimulate epiphyseal revascularization
. To redirect a more congruent portion of the femoral head into the weight-bearing zone
. To correct an underlying severe coxa vara
. To induce premature closure of the triradiate cartilage
. To decompress the subchondral cysts

Correct Answer & Explanation

. To redirect a more congruent portion of the femoral head into the weight-bearing zone


Explanation

Correct Answer: B (To redirect a more congruent portion of the femoral head into the weight-bearing zone)In MED, the femoral heads become flattened and irregular, leading to early osteoarthritis. If a portion of the femoral head is more congruent with the acetabulum (often assessed via dynamic radiographs or MRI), a proximal femoral osteotomy (varus or valgus, flexion or extension) can be performed to redirect this congruent cartilage into the primary weight-bearing zone. This improves joint mechanics and can delay the need for total hip arthroplasty.

Question 6408

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 28-year-old female with a known diagnosis of Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED) presents with severe, bilateral hip pain that limits her daily activities. Radiographs show advanced bilateral hip osteoarthritis with flattened femoral heads, but her acetabular depth is relatively preserved. Spine radiographs are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

. Bilateral periacetabular osteotomies
. Bilateral proximal femoral valgus osteotomies
. Bilateral total hip arthroplasty
. Bilateral hip arthrodesis
. Core decompression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bilateral total hip arthroplasty


Explanation

Correct Answer: C (Bilateral total hip arthroplasty)Patients with Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED) frequently develop early-onset, severe osteoarthritis of the weight-bearing joints, particularly the hips and knees, due to the incongruity of the dysplastic epiphyses. In a young adult with end-stage osteoarthritis severely limiting function, Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA) is the treatment of choice and provides excellent pain relief and functional improvement. Joint-preserving osteotomies are generally not effective once advanced degenerative changes have occurred.

Question 6409

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 32-year-old patient with Autosomal Dominant Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED) presents with end-stage hip osteoarthritis and requires bilateral total hip arthroplasties (THA). Which of the following intraoperative challenges is most characteristic for this specific patient population?

. Severe acetabular protrusio requiring bone grafting
. Extreme soft tissue laxity leading to high dislocation rates
. Small, distorted diaphyseal canals and flattened proximal femoral anatomy
. Massive uncontrollable heterotopic ossification postoperatively
. High rates of early periprosthetic joint infection due to immunosuppression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Small, distorted diaphyseal canals and flattened proximal femoral anatomy


Explanation

Patients with MED frequently develop early-onset OA due to dysplastic epiphyses. THA is technically demanding because these patients characteristically have narrow diaphyseal canals and dwarfed, deformed proximal femora, frequently requiring custom implants.

Question 6410

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 35-year-old male with a documented history of Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia (MED) presents with progressive, severe joint pain. He has symmetrical involvement of his shoulders, hips, and knees. Which joint is most likely to require the earliest arthroplasty in the natural history of this condition?

. Shoulder
. Elbow
. Hip
. Knee
. Ankle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hip


Explanation

Early-onset osteoarthritis of the hips is the most debilitating complication of Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia. More than 50% of these patients require total hip arthroplasty, often at a relatively young age.

Question 6411

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 75-year-old female with a history of osteoporosis sustains a mechanical fall and presents with severe left groin pain. Her left lower extremity is shortened and externally rotated. Radiographs demonstrate a completely displaced, subcapital femoral neck fracture. She is independently ambulatory and lives alone. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate to minimize the risk of reoperation and optimize her functional recovery?

. Closed reduction and percutaneous pinning
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a sliding hip screw
. Hemiarthroplasty or total hip arthroplasty
. Proximal femoral nail insertion
. Nonoperative management with early mobilization

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hemiarthroplasty or total hip arthroplasty


Explanation

Correct Answer: CIn an elderly, independently ambulatory patient with a displaced femoral neck fracture, arthroplasty (hemiarthroplasty or total hip arthroplasty) is the treatment of choice. Internal fixation (e.g., cannulated screws or a sliding hip screw) in displaced fractures in this age group carries an unacceptably high risk of avascular necrosis and nonunion, leading to a high reoperation rate. Arthroplasty allows for immediate weight-bearing and a faster return to baseline function.

Question 6412

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 78-year-old female with osteoporosis trips on a rug and falls onto her left hip. She is unable to bear weight. In the emergency department, her left lower extremity is noted to be shortened and externally rotated. Radiographs confirm a displaced intracapsular fracture of the proximal femur. What is the most significant complication associated with this specific fracture pattern if treated with internal fixation?

. Post-traumatic osteoarthritis
. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
. Sciatic nerve palsy
. Heterotopic ossification
. Deep vein thrombosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head


Explanation

Correct Answer: BPathophysiology:Femoral neck fractures are intracapsular fractures. The blood supply to the femoral head is tenuous, relying primarily on the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA), which courses along the femoral neck.Complications:Displacement of a femoral neck fracture frequently disrupts the MFCA, leading to a high risk of avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head and nonunion. Because of this high risk, displaced femoral neck fractures in the elderly are typically treated with arthroplasty (hemiarthroplasty or total hip arthroplasty) rather than internal fixation.Clinical Presentation:Patients classically present with a shortened and externally rotated lower extremity due to the unopposed pull of the iliopsoas and short external rotators.

Question 6413

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old female sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture. She is at high risk for avascular necrosis of the femoral head due to disruption of its primary blood supply. Which of the following vessels provides the predominant blood supply to the weight-bearing dome of the femoral head in an adult?

. Artery of the ligamentum teres
. Lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Medial femoral circumflex artery
. Inferior gluteal artery
. Superior gluteal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial femoral circumflex artery


Explanation

Correct Answer: C (Medial femoral circumflex artery)The medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA), specifically its lateral epiphyseal branches, provides the predominant blood supply to the weight-bearing dome of the femoral head in adults. Disruption of this vessel in displaced femoral neck fractures leads to a high rate of avascular necrosis. The artery of the ligamentum teres provides a negligible amount of blood supply in adults, though it is more significant in children.

Question 6414

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old female sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture after a mechanical fall. She is scheduled for a hemiarthroplasty. The high rate of avascular necrosis and nonunion associated with this fracture pattern, if treated with internal fixation, is primarily due to disruption of which of the following vessels?

. Artery of the ligamentum teres
. Medial femoral circumflex artery
. Lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Inferior gluteal artery
. First perforating branch of the profunda femoris

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial femoral circumflex artery


Explanation

Correct Answer: BThe primary blood supply to the adult femoral head is derived from the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA), specifically its lateral epiphyseal branches, which travel along the femoral neck in the retinaculum. Displaced femoral neck fractures frequently disrupt these vessels, leading to a high risk of avascular necrosis (AVN) and nonunion. Because of this risk, elderly patients with displaced femoral neck fractures are typically treated with arthroplasty (hemiarthroplasty or total hip arthroplasty) rather than internal fixation. The artery of the ligamentum teres provides a negligible blood supply in adults. The lateral femoral circumflex artery supplies the anterior and inferior portions of the femoral neck but is not the primary supply to the head.

Question 6415

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old female sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture after a mechanical fall. She is scheduled for a hemiarthroplasty due to the high risk of avascular necrosis. Which of the following vessels provides the predominant blood supply to the adult femoral head, which is disrupted in this injury?

. Artery of the ligamentum teres
. Inferior gluteal artery
. Lateral epiphyseal branches of the medial femoral circumflex artery
. Ascending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery
. First perforating branch of the profunda femoris

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral epiphyseal branches of the medial femoral circumflex artery


Explanation

Correct Answer: Lateral epiphyseal branches of the medial femoral circumflex arteryThe predominant blood supply to the adult femoral head is provided by the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA), specifically its lateral epiphyseal branches. The MFCA forms an extracapsular arterial ring at the base of the femoral neck, giving off ascending cervical branches that pierce the joint capsule and travel along the femoral neck as retinacular vessels. These vessels are highly susceptible to disruption or tamponade from an intracapsular hematoma following a displaced femoral neck fracture, leading to avascular necrosis. The artery of the ligamentum teres (a branch of the obturator artery) provides a negligible amount of blood supply in adults.

Question 6416

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old male undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach for severe osteoarthritis. Six weeks postoperatively, he sustains a posterior dislocation while bending over to tie his shoes. To minimize the risk of this complication during the index procedure, the acetabular component should ideally be placed within the "safe zone." Which of the following represents the classic Lewinnek safe zone for acetabular cup positioning?

. 30° ± 10° of inclination and 5° ± 10° of anteversion
. 40° ± 10° of inclination and 15° ± 10° of anteversion
. 50° ± 10° of inclination and 25° ± 10° of anteversion
. 45° ± 10° of inclination and 0° ± 10° of anteversion
. 35° ± 10° of inclination and 30° ± 10° of anteversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 40° ± 10° of inclination and 15° ± 10° of anteversion


Explanation

Correct Answer: 40° ± 10° of inclination and 15° ± 10° of anteversionThe Lewinnek safe zone is a classic orthopedic concept describing the ideal orientation of the acetabular component in total hip arthroplasty to minimize the risk of dislocation. It is defined as 40° ± 10° of inclination (abduction) and 15° ± 10° of anteversion. Cups placed with excessive anteversion or inclination are prone to anterior and superior dislocations, respectively, while retroverted cups are at high risk for posterior dislocation, especially when combined with a posterior surgical approach.

Question 6417

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, the trial components are placed. The knee is tight in flexion but balanced in extension. Which of the following adjustments is most appropriate to balance the knee?

. Release the posterior capsule
. Recut the proximal tibia with less posterior slope
. Downsize the femoral component using an anterior referencing guide
. Upsize the femoral component using a posterior referencing guide
. Distalize the femoral component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component using an anterior referencing guide


Explanation

A knee that is tight in flexion and balanced in extension requires an increase in the flexion gap. Downsizing the femoral component using anterior referencing resects more posterior femoral condyle, increasing the flexion gap without affecting the extension gap.

Question 6418

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In modern total hip arthroplasty, highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) is frequently infused with Vitamin E (alpha-tocopherol). What is the primary biochemical purpose of adding Vitamin E to the polyethylene?

. To promote osteointegration of the acetabular shell
. To serve as a free radical scavenger preventing oxidation
. To increase the melting point of the polyethylene
. To reduce the risk of periprosthetic joint infection
. To facilitate cross-linking during gamma irradiation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. To serve as a free radical scavenger preventing oxidation


Explanation

Vitamin E is added to highly cross-linked polyethylene as an antioxidant to quench free radicals generated during the irradiation process. This prevents in vivo oxidation, thereby preserving the material's mechanical properties and reducing wear.

Question 6419

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old male undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty using a highly cross-linked polyethylene liner. During the manufacturing process, the polyethylene is subjected to gamma irradiation followed by remelting. Which of the following best describes the biomechanical effect of the remelting process?

. Decreases wear rate and increases fatigue strength
. Eliminates free radicals but reduces mechanical and fatigue strength
. Increases wear rate but improves fatigue strength
. Creates free radicals and increases ultimate tensile strength
. Has no effect on free radicals but drastically decreases wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Eliminates free radicals but reduces mechanical and fatigue strength


Explanation

Gamma irradiation creates cross-links that improve wear resistance but also generates reactive free radicals. Remelting the polyethylene eliminates these free radicals to prevent long-term oxidation, though it comes at the cost of reducing the material's mechanical and fatigue strength.

Question 6420

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon assesses the gap kinematics with trial components in place. The extension gap is symmetric and perfectly balanced, but the flexion gap is tight. Which of the following adjustments is the most appropriate next step?

. Recut the proximal tibia with more posterior slope
. Downsize the femoral component or release the posterior cruciate ligament
. Release the superficial medial collateral ligament
. Upsize the femoral component
. Use a thinner polyethylene insert

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component or release the posterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

A tight flexion gap with a balanced extension gap indicates the femoral component is too large posteriorly or the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is excessively tight. Downsizing the femoral component (anterior referencing) or releasing the PCL will balance the flexion gap without altering extension.