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Question 621

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 78-year-old female falls and sustains a spiral fracture around the stem of her cementless total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs show the fracture propagates 3 cm distal to the lesser trochanter. Comparing current films to preoperative films, the stem has subsided by 1.5 cm. According to the Vancouver classification, what is the recommended treatment?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a lateral locking plate and cerclage wires alone
. Conservative management with skeletal traction for 6 weeks
. Revision of the femoral component to a long cementless diaphyseal-engaging stem
. Impaction bone grafting with a cemented standard-length stem
. Proximal femoral replacement (megaprosthesis)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision of the femoral component to a long cementless diaphyseal-engaging stem


Explanation

This is a Vancouver B2 periprosthetic fracture, characterized by a fracture around the stem with an unstable/loose implant but adequate proximal bone stock. The standard of care is revision arthroplasty utilizing a long stem that bypasses the fracture to achieve diaphyseal fixation.

Question 622

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 70-year-old patient with a painful, swollen TKA has an alpha-defensin test that is positive, and synovial fluid shows 15,000 WBC/ยตL with 90% neutrophils. The patient has been off antibiotics for 4 weeks, yet routine aerobic, anaerobic, and fungal cultures remain negative after 14 days of incubation. What is the most sensitive next diagnostic step to identify the causative organism?

. Repeat joint aspiration for acid-fast bacilli (AFB) culture
. Synovial fluid polymerase chain reaction (PCR) targeting 16S rRNA or Next-Generation Sequencing (NGS)
. Peripheral blood cultures drawn during a febrile episode
. Fluorodeoxyglucose Positron Emission Tomography (FDG-PET) scan
. Empiric commencement of intravenous Vancomycin and Cefepime

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Synovial fluid polymerase chain reaction (PCR) targeting 16S rRNA or Next-Generation Sequencing (NGS)


Explanation

In cases of strongly suspected culture-negative PJI, molecular diagnostics such as Next-Generation Sequencing (NGS) or 16S rRNA PCR of the synovial fluid offer significantly higher sensitivity than traditional cultures for identifying elusive, fastidious, or previously treated organisms.

Question 623

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 55-year-old active male underwent a primary total hip arthroplasty with a ceramic-on-ceramic articulation 3 years ago. He now complains of a loud, audible squeaking sound from his hip during gait, though he denies pain. Radiographs demonstrate a well-fixed femoral stem and an acetabular cup positioned in 65 degrees of inclination. What is the primary mechanical cause of the squeaking?

. Third-body wear from retained cement debris
. Impingement of the femoral neck on the anterior acetabular rim
. Loss of fluid film lubrication leading to stripe wear from edge loading
. Fracture of the ceramic acetabular liner
. Galvanic corrosion at the head-neck junction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of fluid film lubrication leading to stripe wear from edge loading


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is highly associated with component malposition, specifically excessive cup inclination (>50-55 degrees) or anteversion. This leads to edge loading, disruption of the fluid film lubrication, and subsequent stripe wear on the ceramic head.

Question 624

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old patient on chronic immunosuppressive therapy develops a periprosthetic joint infection of their TKA. Synovial fluid cultures definitively grow Candida albicans. According to current consensus guidelines, what is the most appropriate management strategy for this fungal PJI?

. Debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR) followed by lifelong oral fluconazole
. Two-stage exchange arthroplasty with a prolonged interval course of systemic antifungal therapy
. Single-stage exchange arthroplasty utilizing antifungal-loaded bone cement
. Arthroscopic lavage followed by 6 weeks of intravenous amphotericin B
. Immediate above-knee amputation due to the high mortality rate of fungal PJI

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Two-stage exchange arthroplasty with a prolonged interval course of systemic antifungal therapy


Explanation

Fungal periprosthetic joint infections are notoriously difficult to eradicate and form robust biofilms. The gold standard treatment is a two-stage exchange arthroplasty with an extended interval (often longer than bacterial PJI) of targeted systemic antifungal therapy.

Question 625

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient complains of a significant leg length discrepancy (LLD), feeling that the operative leg is too long, 6 weeks after a primary total hip arthroplasty. On the AP pelvis radiograph, the distance from the lesser trochanter to the center of the femoral head is 15 mm greater on the operative side compared to the normal side, while the acetabular teardrop to head center distances are equal. What surgical error most likely occurred?

. The acetabular component was placed too inferiorly.
. The femoral neck resection was made too proximal (leaving too much calcar).
. The femoral neck resection was made too distal (resecting too much calcar).
. An excessively high-offset femoral head was utilized.
. The acetabular component was placed with inadequate inclination.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The femoral neck resection was made too proximal (leaving too much calcar).


Explanation

An increased distance from the lesser trochanter to the center of rotation of the femoral head, with symmetric acetabular positioning, indicates that the femoral component sits too high. This is typically caused by a femoral neck cut that was made too proximally, retaining excessive calcar length.

Question 626

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old male presents with chronic pain two years after a primary total knee arthroplasty. Synovial fluid aspiration yields a white blood cell count of 4,200 cells/uL with 85% polymorphonuclear cells. However, aerobic and anaerobic cultures show no growth at 7 days. Which of the following synovial fluid biomarkers has the highest specificity for confirming a diagnosis of periprosthetic joint infection (PJI) in this culture-negative scenario?

. Leukocyte esterase
. Interleukin-6
. Alpha-defensin
. C-reactive protein
. Calprotectin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Alpha-defensin


Explanation

Alpha-defensin is an antimicrobial peptide released by neutrophils that has extremely high sensitivity and specificity for PJI. It is particularly valuable for confirming infection in cases where standard cultures remain negative or when patients have recently taken antibiotics.

Question 627

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old female with a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty presents with a loud squeaking noise from her hip during walking. She is otherwise pain-free and radiographs show no radiolucencies. Which of the following factors regarding component positioning is most strongly associated with this phenomenon?

. Acetabular component retroversion with edge-loading
. Femoral stem retroversion
. Excessive femoral offset
. Use of a larger diameter ceramic head
. Decreased abductor tension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular component retroversion with edge-loading


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is strongly correlated with edge-loading of the bearing surfaces. Edge-loading typically results from component malposition, specifically steep acetabular inclination or improper anteversion/retroversion.

Question 628

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 70-year-old male with a well-functioning total knee arthroplasty for 5 years presents with 3 days of acute, severe knee pain, swelling, and erythema following a dental extraction. Aspiration yields frankly purulent fluid with a WBC count of 85,000 cells/uL. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR) with polyethylene exchange
. Single-stage revision arthroplasty
. Two-stage revision with an articulating spacer
. Two-stage revision with a static spacer
. Lifelong suppressive antibiotics without surgical intervention

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR) with polyethylene exchange


Explanation

Acute hematogenous periprosthetic joint infections presenting within days of symptom onset in a well-fixed implant are best managed with a DAIR procedure. Exchanging the modular polyethylene liner is critical to effectively reduce the biofilm burden.

Question 629

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 62-year-old patient undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty utilizing the direct anterior approach. Postoperatively, the patient complains of a burning, numbing sensation over the anterolateral aspect of the operated thigh. Which of the following nerves was most likely injured or stretched during the surgical exposure?

. Femoral nerve
. Sciatic nerve
. Obturator nerve
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve


Explanation

The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve is at highest risk during the direct anterior approach to the hip due to its anatomical course over the sartorius muscle. Injury to this nerve results in meralgia paresthetica, presenting as anterolateral thigh numbness and dysesthesia.

Question 630

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

When planning a two-stage revision for a chronic periprosthetic joint infection of the knee, an orthopedic surgeon must decide between an articulating and a static cement spacer. Which of the following is a primary indication for utilizing a static spacer over an articulating one?

. The desire to maintain preoperative range of motion
. A relatively well-preserved joint line
. Massive uncontained bone loss and extensor mechanism deficiency
. Infection strictly isolated to the synovial fluid
. A first-time revision scenario

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Massive uncontained bone loss and extensor mechanism deficiency


Explanation

Static spacers are indicated in two-stage revisions when there is massive bone loss, severe ligamentous instability, an incompetent extensor mechanism, or inadequate soft-tissue coverage. Articulating spacers are generally preferred otherwise to maintain joint mobility and facilitate reimplantation.

Question 631

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 72-year-old female presents with her third posterior dislocation of her total hip arthroplasty. A review of her postoperative CT scan evaluating component position is ordered. Which of the following cup positions is the most likely culprit for recurrent posterior instability?

. Acetabular cup retroversion
. Acetabular cup anteversion of 20 degrees
. Acetabular cup inclination of 40 degrees
. Femoral stem anteversion of 15 degrees
. High femoral offset

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular cup retroversion


Explanation

Posterior dislocation in THA is frequently caused by inadequate anteversion or overt retroversion of the acetabular component. Proper 'safe zone' component positioning requires approximately 15-20 degrees of anteversion and 40 degrees of inclination.

Question 632

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient with a painful total knee arthroplasty is suspected of having a chronic periprosthetic joint infection and is currently taking oral antibiotics prescribed by their primary care physician. To maximize the diagnostic yield of a synovial fluid aspiration for culture, how long should the antibiotics ideally be withheld before performing the arthrocentesis?

. 24 hours
. 3 days
. 7 days
. 14 days
. 6 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 14 days


Explanation

Current AAOS and MSIS guidelines recommend discontinuing antibiotics for a minimum of 14 days prior to obtaining synovial fluid cultures. This antibiotic holiday maximizes the diagnostic yield and minimizes the risk of a false-negative culture.

Question 633

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old male with a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty utilizing a standard titanium stem and a large-diameter cobalt-chromium femoral head presents with groin pain and an associated soft-tissue pseudotumor 6 years postoperatively. Which of the following serum laboratory profiles is most characteristic of mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (MACC) at the head-neck junction?

. Elevated serum chromium levels significantly higher than cobalt
. Elevated serum cobalt levels significantly higher than chromium
. Profoundly elevated serum titanium levels with normal cobalt
. Normal metal ion levels with elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
. Decreased serum albumin and total protein

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Elevated serum cobalt levels significantly higher than chromium


Explanation

Trunnionosis occurs via mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (MACC) at the head-neck junction in THA. It is classically diagnosed by elevated serum cobalt levels that are disproportionately higher than serum chromium levels.

Question 634

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In a two-stage exchange arthroplasty for a periprosthetic knee infection, articulating spacers are frequently utilized. Compared to static spacers, which of the following is the primary advantage of utilizing an articulating spacer?

. Superior infection eradication rates
. Higher peak local antibiotic concentrations
. Facilitation of surgical exposure during the second stage
. Decreased systemic antibiotic toxicity
. Lower incidence of spacer fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased systemic antibiotic toxicity


Explanation

Articulating spacers maintain joint mobility, prevent extensor mechanism contracture, and facilitate exposure during the reimplantation stage. Both static and articulating spacers demonstrate comparable infection eradication rates.

Question 635

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old male presents with new-onset groin pain 12 years after a primary total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs reveal eccentric polyethylene wear and a 3 cm retroacetabular osteolytic lesion. The acetabular shell is well-fixed and correctly positioned. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Revision of both the femoral and acetabular components
. Core decompression of the osteolytic cyst
. Observation with serial radiographs
. Polyethylene liner exchange and bone grafting of the lesion
. Revision of the acetabular shell to a larger multi-hole component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Polyethylene liner exchange and bone grafting of the lesion


Explanation

For an isolated retroacetabular osteolytic lesion with a well-fixed, optimally positioned acetabular component, the gold standard treatment is isolated polyethylene liner exchange combined with curettage and bone grafting of the cyst.

Question 636

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 70-year-old female undergoes a revision total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. Intraoperatively, the well-fixed acetabular component is noted to be retroverted by 10 degrees, but removal would result in massive bone loss. If the cup is retained, which adjustment to the modular femoral stem would best compensate for this acetabular malposition to prevent posterior instability?

. Decreasing femoral anteversion
. Using a standard highly cross-linked polyethylene liner without lateralization
. Shortening the femoral neck length
. Advancing the greater trochanter
. Increasing femoral anteversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increasing femoral anteversion


Explanation

Increasing femoral anteversion increases the combined anteversion of the total hip construct. This effectively compensates for an excessively retroverted acetabular component, mitigating the risk of posterior dislocation.

Question 637

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

According to the current literature, what is the optimal timeframe to perform a Debridement, Antibiotics, and Implant Retention (DAIR) procedure for an acute hematogenous periprosthetic knee infection to maximize the probability of infection eradication?

. Exclusively within 4 weeks of the primary arthroplasty procedure
. Within 3 to 4 weeks of the onset of infectious symptoms
. Only when symptoms have been present for less than 72 hours
. Whenever a methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus species is identified
. At any time point provided the synovial white blood cell count is below 50,000 cells/mcL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Within 3 to 4 weeks of the onset of infectious symptoms


Explanation

DAIR is indicated for acute postoperative infections (within 4 weeks of index surgery) or acute hematogenous infections. For acute hematogenous PJI, DAIR is most successful when performed within 3 to 4 weeks of symptom onset.

Question 638

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old male with a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty presents with unexplained groin pain 5 years postoperatively. Radiographs show well-fixed components without osteolysis. Laboratory analysis reveals significantly elevated serum cobalt levels with normal serum chromium. What is the most likely etiology of his symptoms?

. Polyethylene particulate wear debris
. Iliopsoas tendon impingement on the anterior acetabulum
. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the modular head-neck junction
. Low-virulence periprosthetic joint infection
. Unrecognized metal-on-metal articulation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the modular head-neck junction


Explanation

Trunnionosis, or mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the modular head-neck junction, characteristically presents with elevated serum cobalt disproportionate to chromium in metal-on-polyethylene THA, leading to adverse local tissue reactions.

Question 639

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

The introduction of highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) has significantly reduced wear rates and subsequent osteolysis in total hip arthroplasty. However, the irradiation process used to create HXLPE alters its mechanical properties. Which of the following is a primary mechanical disadvantage of this process?

. Decreased resistance to adhesive wear
. Increased generation of submicron wear particles
. Decreased fatigue resistance and yield strength
. Increased risk of oxidation upon in vivo implantation
. Lowering of the material's structural melting point

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased fatigue resistance and yield strength


Explanation

The irradiation used to cross-link polyethylene improves wear resistance but decreases important mechanical properties, including fatigue resistance, yield strength, and ultimate tensile strength, which increases the risk of component fracture.

Question 640

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient undergoes total hip arthroplasty. The choice of bearing surface is critical. Which material pairing typically exhibits the lowest wear rate in modern hip arthroplasty?

. Metal-on-polyethylene (conventional)
. Ceramic-on-ceramic
. Metal-on-metal
. Ceramic-on-polyethylene (conventional)
. Highly cross-linked polyethylene-on-metal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ceramic-on-ceramic


Explanation

Correct Answer: BCeramic-on-ceramic (CoC) bearings generally exhibit the lowest wear rates among the options provided, particularly with modern advanced ceramics. This is due to their excellent hardness, scratch resistance, and hydrophilicity. While highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) significantly improved wear compared to conventional polyethylene, CoC often still has superior wear characteristics. Metal-on-metal has fallen out of favor due to concerns regarding metal ion release and pseudotumor formation. Conventional polyethylene has high wear, and conventional ceramic-on-polyethylene is better than conventional metal-on-polyethylene, but CoC and HXLPE-on-metal are generally superior.