This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee). Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 621
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 78-year-old female falls and sustains a spiral fracture around the stem of her cementless total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs show the fracture propagates 3 cm distal to the lesser trochanter. Comparing current films to preoperative films, the stem has subsided by 1.5 cm. According to the Vancouver classification, what is the recommended treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Revision of the femoral component to a long cementless diaphyseal-engaging stem
Explanation
This is a Vancouver B2 periprosthetic fracture, characterized by a fracture around the stem with an unstable/loose implant but adequate proximal bone stock. The standard of care is revision arthroplasty utilizing a long stem that bypasses the fracture to achieve diaphyseal fixation.
Question 622
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 70-year-old patient with a painful, swollen TKA has an alpha-defensin test that is positive, and synovial fluid shows 15,000 WBC/ยตL with 90% neutrophils. The patient has been off antibiotics for 4 weeks, yet routine aerobic, anaerobic, and fungal cultures remain negative after 14 days of incubation. What is the most sensitive next diagnostic step to identify the causative organism?
In cases of strongly suspected culture-negative PJI, molecular diagnostics such as Next-Generation Sequencing (NGS) or 16S rRNA PCR of the synovial fluid offer significantly higher sensitivity than traditional cultures for identifying elusive, fastidious, or previously treated organisms.
Question 623
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 55-year-old active male underwent a primary total hip arthroplasty with a ceramic-on-ceramic articulation 3 years ago. He now complains of a loud, audible squeaking sound from his hip during gait, though he denies pain. Radiographs demonstrate a well-fixed femoral stem and an acetabular cup positioned in 65 degrees of inclination. What is the primary mechanical cause of the squeaking?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Loss of fluid film lubrication leading to stripe wear from edge loading
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is highly associated with component malposition, specifically excessive cup inclination (>50-55 degrees) or anteversion. This leads to edge loading, disruption of the fluid film lubrication, and subsequent stripe wear on the ceramic head.
Question 624
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 68-year-old patient on chronic immunosuppressive therapy develops a periprosthetic joint infection of their TKA. Synovial fluid cultures definitively grow Candida albicans. According to current consensus guidelines, what is the most appropriate management strategy for this fungal PJI?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Two-stage exchange arthroplasty with a prolonged interval course of systemic antifungal therapy
Explanation
Fungal periprosthetic joint infections are notoriously difficult to eradicate and form robust biofilms. The gold standard treatment is a two-stage exchange arthroplasty with an extended interval (often longer than bacterial PJI) of targeted systemic antifungal therapy.
Question 625
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A patient complains of a significant leg length discrepancy (LLD), feeling that the operative leg is too long, 6 weeks after a primary total hip arthroplasty. On the AP pelvis radiograph, the distance from the lesser trochanter to the center of the femoral head is 15 mm greater on the operative side compared to the normal side, while the acetabular teardrop to head center distances are equal. What surgical error most likely occurred?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. The femoral neck resection was made too proximal (leaving too much calcar).
Explanation
An increased distance from the lesser trochanter to the center of rotation of the femoral head, with symmetric acetabular positioning, indicates that the femoral component sits too high. This is typically caused by a femoral neck cut that was made too proximally, retaining excessive calcar length.
Question 626
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 68-year-old male presents with chronic pain two years after a primary total knee arthroplasty. Synovial fluid aspiration yields a white blood cell count of 4,200 cells/uL with 85% polymorphonuclear cells. However, aerobic and anaerobic cultures show no growth at 7 days. Which of the following synovial fluid biomarkers has the highest specificity for confirming a diagnosis of periprosthetic joint infection (PJI) in this culture-negative scenario?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Alpha-defensin
Explanation
Alpha-defensin is an antimicrobial peptide released by neutrophils that has extremely high sensitivity and specificity for PJI. It is particularly valuable for confirming infection in cases where standard cultures remain negative or when patients have recently taken antibiotics.
Question 627
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 55-year-old female with a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty presents with a loud squeaking noise from her hip during walking. She is otherwise pain-free and radiographs show no radiolucencies. Which of the following factors regarding component positioning is most strongly associated with this phenomenon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Acetabular component retroversion with edge-loading
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is strongly correlated with edge-loading of the bearing surfaces. Edge-loading typically results from component malposition, specifically steep acetabular inclination or improper anteversion/retroversion.
Question 628
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 70-year-old male with a well-functioning total knee arthroplasty for 5 years presents with 3 days of acute, severe knee pain, swelling, and erythema following a dental extraction. Aspiration yields frankly purulent fluid with a WBC count of 85,000 cells/uL. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR) with polyethylene exchange
Explanation
Acute hematogenous periprosthetic joint infections presenting within days of symptom onset in a well-fixed implant are best managed with a DAIR procedure. Exchanging the modular polyethylene liner is critical to effectively reduce the biofilm burden.
Question 629
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 62-year-old patient undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty utilizing the direct anterior approach. Postoperatively, the patient complains of a burning, numbing sensation over the anterolateral aspect of the operated thigh. Which of the following nerves was most likely injured or stretched during the surgical exposure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
Explanation
The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve is at highest risk during the direct anterior approach to the hip due to its anatomical course over the sartorius muscle. Injury to this nerve results in meralgia paresthetica, presenting as anterolateral thigh numbness and dysesthesia.
Question 630
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
When planning a two-stage revision for a chronic periprosthetic joint infection of the knee, an orthopedic surgeon must decide between an articulating and a static cement spacer. Which of the following is a primary indication for utilizing a static spacer over an articulating one?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Massive uncontained bone loss and extensor mechanism deficiency
Explanation
Static spacers are indicated in two-stage revisions when there is massive bone loss, severe ligamentous instability, an incompetent extensor mechanism, or inadequate soft-tissue coverage. Articulating spacers are generally preferred otherwise to maintain joint mobility and facilitate reimplantation.
Question 631
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 72-year-old female presents with her third posterior dislocation of her total hip arthroplasty. A review of her postoperative CT scan evaluating component position is ordered. Which of the following cup positions is the most likely culprit for recurrent posterior instability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Acetabular cup retroversion
Explanation
Posterior dislocation in THA is frequently caused by inadequate anteversion or overt retroversion of the acetabular component. Proper 'safe zone' component positioning requires approximately 15-20 degrees of anteversion and 40 degrees of inclination.
Question 632
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A patient with a painful total knee arthroplasty is suspected of having a chronic periprosthetic joint infection and is currently taking oral antibiotics prescribed by their primary care physician. To maximize the diagnostic yield of a synovial fluid aspiration for culture, how long should the antibiotics ideally be withheld before performing the arthrocentesis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 14 days
Explanation
Current AAOS and MSIS guidelines recommend discontinuing antibiotics for a minimum of 14 days prior to obtaining synovial fluid cultures. This antibiotic holiday maximizes the diagnostic yield and minimizes the risk of a false-negative culture.
Question 633
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 60-year-old male with a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty utilizing a standard titanium stem and a large-diameter cobalt-chromium femoral head presents with groin pain and an associated soft-tissue pseudotumor 6 years postoperatively. Which of the following serum laboratory profiles is most characteristic of mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (MACC) at the head-neck junction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Elevated serum cobalt levels significantly higher than chromium
Explanation
Trunnionosis occurs via mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (MACC) at the head-neck junction in THA. It is classically diagnosed by elevated serum cobalt levels that are disproportionately higher than serum chromium levels.
Question 634
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In a two-stage exchange arthroplasty for a periprosthetic knee infection, articulating spacers are frequently utilized. Compared to static spacers, which of the following is the primary advantage of utilizing an articulating spacer?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreased systemic antibiotic toxicity
Explanation
Articulating spacers maintain joint mobility, prevent extensor mechanism contracture, and facilitate exposure during the reimplantation stage. Both static and articulating spacers demonstrate comparable infection eradication rates.
Question 635
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 55-year-old male presents with new-onset groin pain 12 years after a primary total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs reveal eccentric polyethylene wear and a 3 cm retroacetabular osteolytic lesion. The acetabular shell is well-fixed and correctly positioned. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Polyethylene liner exchange and bone grafting of the lesion
Explanation
For an isolated retroacetabular osteolytic lesion with a well-fixed, optimally positioned acetabular component, the gold standard treatment is isolated polyethylene liner exchange combined with curettage and bone grafting of the cyst.
Question 636
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 70-year-old female undergoes a revision total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. Intraoperatively, the well-fixed acetabular component is noted to be retroverted by 10 degrees, but removal would result in massive bone loss. If the cup is retained, which adjustment to the modular femoral stem would best compensate for this acetabular malposition to prevent posterior instability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increasing femoral anteversion
Explanation
Increasing femoral anteversion increases the combined anteversion of the total hip construct. This effectively compensates for an excessively retroverted acetabular component, mitigating the risk of posterior dislocation.
Question 637
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
According to the current literature, what is the optimal timeframe to perform a Debridement, Antibiotics, and Implant Retention (DAIR) procedure for an acute hematogenous periprosthetic knee infection to maximize the probability of infection eradication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Within 3 to 4 weeks of the onset of infectious symptoms
Explanation
DAIR is indicated for acute postoperative infections (within 4 weeks of index surgery) or acute hematogenous infections. For acute hematogenous PJI, DAIR is most successful when performed within 3 to 4 weeks of symptom onset.
Question 638
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 65-year-old male with a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty presents with unexplained groin pain 5 years postoperatively. Radiographs show well-fixed components without osteolysis. Laboratory analysis reveals significantly elevated serum cobalt levels with normal serum chromium. What is the most likely etiology of his symptoms?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the modular head-neck junction
Explanation
Trunnionosis, or mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the modular head-neck junction, characteristically presents with elevated serum cobalt disproportionate to chromium in metal-on-polyethylene THA, leading to adverse local tissue reactions.
Question 639
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
The introduction of highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) has significantly reduced wear rates and subsequent osteolysis in total hip arthroplasty. However, the irradiation process used to create HXLPE alters its mechanical properties. Which of the following is a primary mechanical disadvantage of this process?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreased fatigue resistance and yield strength
Explanation
The irradiation used to cross-link polyethylene improves wear resistance but decreases important mechanical properties, including fatigue resistance, yield strength, and ultimate tensile strength, which increases the risk of component fracture.
Question 640
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A patient undergoes total hip arthroplasty. The choice of bearing surface is critical. Which material pairing typically exhibits the lowest wear rate in modern hip arthroplasty?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ceramic-on-ceramic
Explanation
Correct Answer: BCeramic-on-ceramic (CoC) bearings generally exhibit the lowest wear rates among the options provided, particularly with modern advanced ceramics. This is due to their excellent hardness, scratch resistance, and hydrophilicity. While highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) significantly improved wear compared to conventional polyethylene, CoC often still has superior wear characteristics. Metal-on-metal has fallen out of favor due to concerns regarding metal ion release and pseudotumor formation. Conventional polyethylene has high wear, and conventional ceramic-on-polyethylene is better than conventional metal-on-polyethylene, but CoC and HXLPE-on-metal are generally superior.
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