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Question 6221

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Which of the following statements regarding synovial fluid C-reactive protein (CRP) in the diagnosis of PJI is most accurate?

. It is a major criterion in the 2018 ICM guidelines
. It provides comparable diagnostic accuracy to alpha-defensin
. It is less accurate than serum CRP for diagnosing PJI
. It requires a specialized immunoassay that takes 7 days to result
. It is heavily influenced by systemic inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It provides comparable diagnostic accuracy to alpha-defensin


Explanation

Synovial fluid CRP has been shown to be highly accurate for diagnosing PJI, providing comparable sensitivity and specificity to alpha-defensin. Furthermore, it is less affected by systemic inflammation than serum CRP.

Question 6222

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient presents with a culture-negative PJI of the hip and a history of prolonged antibiotic use. You suspect a fungal infection. Which specific synovial fluid test is most appropriate to aid in diagnosing a Candida PJI?

. 1,3-beta-D-glucan
. Galactomannan
. Alpha-defensin
. Calprotectin
. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for mecA gene

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1,3-beta-D-glucan


Explanation

1,3-beta-D-glucan is a component of the fungal cell wall, and its presence in synovial fluid or serum can be a useful biomarker for diagnosing invasive fungal infections, including Candida PJI.

Question 6223

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

According to the 2018 ICM, how do the diagnostic thresholds for synovial fluid WBC count and PMN percentage in an acute PJI (within 90 days of surgery) compare to those for chronic PJI?

. Significantly higher for acute PJI
. Significantly lower for acute PJI
. Identical for both acute and chronic PJI
. Based entirely on alpha-defensin instead
. Not applicable because cultures are mandatory

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Significantly higher for acute PJI


Explanation

The 2018 ICM thresholds for acute PJI (e.g., >10,000 cells/uL and >90% PMN) are significantly higher than those for chronic PJI (>3,000 cells/uL and >80% PMN) to account for normal post-surgical inflammation.

Question 6224

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Synovial fluid calprotectin has emerged as a biomarker for PJI. It is primarily released by which of the following cell types during a bacterial infection?

. Synoviocytes
. Osteoblasts
. Neutrophils
. Chondrocytes
. Lymphocytes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Neutrophils


Explanation

Calprotectin is a calcium-binding protein complex predominantly found in the cytoplasm of neutrophils. It is released during neutrophil activation or death, making it a reliable marker of acute inflammation.

Question 6225

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient with a metal-on-metal THA presents with pain and a large joint effusion. Aspiration yields thick, opaque fluid. Synovial WBC is 1,200 cells/uL with 90% monocytes/macrophages. Cultures are pending. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?

. Acute pyogenic PJI
. Mycobacterial PJI
. Adverse local tissue reaction (metallosis)
. Gouty arthritis
. Crystal-induced arthropathy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adverse local tissue reaction (metallosis)


Explanation

Adverse local tissue reactions (ALTR) often present with massive effusions and a low synovial WBC count predominantly composed of macrophages/monocytes, distinguishing it from the neutrophil-predominant fluid of PJI.

Question 6226

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a Posterior-Stabilized (PS) Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA), the cam and post mechanism is designed to substitute for the sacrificed posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). What is the primary kinematic function of the cam-post engagement during deep flexion?

. Induce paradoxical anterior femoral translation
. Drive femoral rollback to improve knee flexion
. Prevent varus-valgus instability
. Prevent hyperextension of the knee
. Substitute for medial collateral ligament deficiency

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Drive femoral rollback to improve knee flexion


Explanation

In a PS TKA, the femoral cam engages the tibial post as the knee flexes. This engagement forces the femur to translate posteriorly on the tibia (femoral rollback). This mimics the function of the native PCL, prevents posterior impingement of the tibia on the posterior femur, and improves maximum knee flexion clearance.

Question 6227

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 58-year-old male with a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty presents with groin pain and a palpable cystic mass 5 years postoperatively. Aspiration yields sterile fluid. Histological examination of the periprosthetic tissue is most likely to reveal which of the following?

. Massive polymorphonuclear leukocyte infiltration
. Extensive foreign body giant cells with birefringent particles
. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate
. Acellular fibrous pseudocapsule
. Malignant spindle cells

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate


Explanation

Adverse local tissue reaction (ALVAL) associated with metal-on-metal implants is a Type IV delayed hypersensitivity response. Histologically, it is characteristically defined by a prominent perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate.

Question 6228

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty for severe varus osteoarthritis, the surgeon finds the knee remains tight medially in both flexion and extension after performing initial bone cuts and removing osteophytes. Which structure should be released next in the standard sequence of medial soft tissue balancing?

. Superficial medial collateral ligament (MCL)
. Deep medial collateral ligament (MCL)
. Pes anserinus
. Posteromedial corner/capsule
. Medial head of the gastrocnemius

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep medial collateral ligament (MCL)


Explanation

The standard sequence for correcting a fixed varus deformity in TKA involves sequential medial release. The deep MCL is typically released first, followed by the posteromedial capsule, and then the superficial MCL if further correction is required.

Question 6229

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Which bearing surface combination in Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA) is associated with the lowest volumetric wear rate but carries a specific risk of audible squeaking and catastrophic component fracture?

. Metal-on-polyethylene
. Ceramic-on-polyethylene
. Ceramic-on-ceramic
. Metal-on-metal
. Oxinium-on-polyethylene

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ceramic-on-ceramic


Explanation

Ceramic-on-ceramic bearings offer the lowest wear rates and no risk of metal ion release. However, they are associated with rare but unique complications including audible squeaking and catastrophic brittle fracture.

Question 6230

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA), the surgeon notes that the knee is tight in flexion but balanced in extension. Which of the following surgical steps is most appropriate to balance the gaps?

. Recut the distal femur
. Release the posterior capsule
. Decrease the size of the femoral component
. Increase the thickness of the tibial polyethylene
. Release the medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decrease the size of the femoral component


Explanation

A tight flexion gap with a balanced extension gap requires decreasing the anteroposterior (AP) dimension of the femoral component (downsizing). Modifying the distal femur or tibial insert would inadvertently alter the already balanced extension gap.

Question 6231

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

According to the 2018 International Consensus Meeting criteria, which of the following findings is considered an absolute major criterion for the diagnosis of chronic periprosthetic joint infection?

. Synovial fluid WBC count of 1,500 cells/microL
. Positive alpha-defensin test
. Presence of a sinus tract communicating with the joint
. Elevated serum C-reactive protein (CRP)
. Elevated synovial fluid polymorphonuclear percentage

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Presence of a sinus tract communicating with the joint


Explanation

A sinus tract communicating with the joint and two positive cultures with the identical organism are the only definitive major criteria for periprosthetic joint infection. Alpha-defensin, CRP, and elevated WBC counts serve as minor criteria.

Question 6232

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Which of the following bearing surface combinations in total hip arthroplasty has the lowest volumetric wear rate but carries a unique risk of audible squeaking?

. Metal-on-polyethylene
. Ceramic-on-polyethylene
. Metal-on-metal
. Ceramic-on-ceramic
. Oxinium-on-polyethylene

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ceramic-on-ceramic


Explanation

Ceramic-on-ceramic bearings offer the lowest volumetric wear rates of any modern THA bearing combination. However, they are associated with unique complications including catastrophic material fracture and audible squeaking.

Question 6233

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old female sustains a displaced femoral neck fracture after a mechanical fall. The surgeon opts for a hemiarthroplasty rather than internal fixation due to the high risk of avascular necrosis. The primary blood supply to the femoral head, which is disrupted in this injury, is a direct branch of which of the following arteries?

. Profunda femoris artery
. Superficial femoral artery
. Obturator artery
. Internal iliac artery
. External iliac artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Profunda femoris artery


Explanation

Correct Answer: A (Profunda femoris artery)The primary blood supply to the adult femoral head is derived from the medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA), specifically its lateral epiphyseal branch. The MCFA is typically a direct branch of the profunda femoris artery (deep artery of the thigh), although anatomical variants exist where it branches directly from the common femoral artery. Displaced femoral neck fractures disrupt this critical extracapsular arterial ring and the ascending cervical branches, leading to a high rate of avascular necrosis (AVN) and nonunion, which is why arthroplasty is often preferred in the elderly population. The obturator artery provides the artery of the ligamentum teres, which supplies a negligible amount of blood to the adult femoral head.

Question 6234

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old male presents with a painful total knee arthroplasty 3 years after the index surgery. Joint aspiration yields a synovial fluid white blood cell count of 45,000 cells/uL with 92% polymorphonuclear neutrophils. What is the gold standard definitive management for this chronic periprosthetic joint infection?

. Arthroscopic irrigation and debridement
. Open irrigation and debridement with polyethylene exchange
. One-stage revision arthroplasty
. Two-stage revision arthroplasty with an antibiotic spacer
. Long-term suppressive intravenous antibiotics

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Two-stage revision arthroplasty with an antibiotic spacer


Explanation

Chronic periprosthetic joint infections (presenting >4 weeks post-operatively) typically have mature biofilm. The standard of care to eradicate the infection is a two-stage revision involving component removal, placement of an antibiotic spacer, and later reimplantation.

Question 6235

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon uses a measured resection and gap balancing technique. With the trial components in place, the knee is found to be tight in flexion but perfectly balanced in extension. Which of the following surgical adjustments will best correct this specific mismatch?

. Resect more distal femur
. Decrease the posterior slope of the tibial cut
. Downsize the femoral component
. Release the posterior cruciate ligament
. Upsize the tibial polyethylene insert

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component


Explanation

A knee that is tight in flexion and balanced in extension has an isolated tight flexion gap. This can be corrected by downsizing the femoral component, which decreases the anteroposterior dimension, or by increasing the posterior tibial slope.

Question 6236

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old male presents with a painful total hip arthroplasty 15 years after his index procedure. Radiographs show eccentric wear of the polyethylene liner and significant periprosthetic osteolysis. The primary biological mechanism driving this osteolysis is mediated by which of the following cell types phagocytosing wear debris?

. Osteoblasts
. Osteoclasts
. Macrophages
. T-lymphocytes
. Fibroblasts

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Macrophages


Explanation

Particle disease and subsequent periprosthetic osteolysis in total joint arthroplasty are primarily driven by macrophages. These cells phagocytose submicron polyethylene wear debris, releasing inflammatory cytokines (such as TNF-alpha and IL-1) that secondarily activate osteoclasts.

Question 6237

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 45-year-old man with advanced ankylosing spondylitis undergoes bilateral total hip arthroplasty due to severe secondary osteoarthritis and autofusion. Which postoperative complication is he at significantly higher risk for compared to the general THA population?

. Aseptic loosening
. Periprosthetic joint infection
. Heterotopic ossification
. Prosthetic dislocation
. Periprosthetic fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Heterotopic ossification


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis have a high propensity for forming new bone and are at a significantly increased risk for developing severe heterotopic ossification after total hip arthroplasty. Prophylaxis with NSAIDs (e.g., indomethacin) or localized radiation is standard.

Question 6238

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 40-year-old male with long-standing, severe ankylosing spondylitis is scheduled to undergo bilateral total hip arthroplasty for debilitating hip ankylosis. Postoperatively, this specific patient population is at a drastically increased risk for which of the following complications?

. Aseptic loosening of the femoral stem
. Recurrent hip dislocation
. Periprosthetic joint infection
. Femoral nerve palsy
. Heterotopic ossification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Heterotopic ossification


Explanation

Patients with ankylosing spondylitis have a markedly elevated risk of developing massive heterotopic ossification (HO) following total hip arthroplasty. Prophylaxis with indomethacin or localized single-dose radiation is strongly recommended in these patients.

Question 6239

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Which of the following describes the correct orientation for a standard posterior approach to the hip for total hip arthroplasty?

. Dissection through the interval between the gluteus medius and piriformis, detaching gluteus maximus insertion.
. Incision of the posterior capsule, release of piriformis, obturator internus, superior and inferior gemelli from the greater trochanter.
. Retraction of the gluteus medius and minimus anteriorly, detachment of the vastus lateralis from the greater trochanter.
. Splitting the gluteus maximus, reflecting the vastus lateralis laterally, and incising the anterior capsule.
. Detachment of the abductor mechanism (gluteus medius and minimus) from the greater trochanter.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Incision of the posterior capsule, release of piriformis, obturator internus, superior and inferior gemelli from the greater trochanter.


Explanation

The standard posterior approach to the hip involves incising the posterior capsule and releasing the short external rotators, specifically the piriformis, obturator internus, and superior/inferior gemelli, from their insertion on the greater trochanter. The gluteus maximus is typically split, not detached from its insertion, and the abductors (gluteus medius/minimus) are preserved, making this a muscle-sparing approach to the abductors. Option A describes an approach that would damage the abductors. Option C and E describe aspects of an anterolateral or direct lateral approach. Option D describes a medial reflection of the vastus lateralis, not a lateral one, and an anterior capsule incision which is incorrect for a posterior approach.

Question 6240

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Which of the following is a recognized risk factor for the development of periprosthetic joint infection (PJI) following total hip arthroplasty?

. BMI < 25
. Female gender
. Elective primary procedure
. Diabetes mellitus (poorly controlled)
. Use of prophylactic antibiotics

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Diabetes mellitus (poorly controlled)


Explanation

Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus is a significant and well-recognized risk factor for periprosthetic joint infection (PJI). Hyperglycemia impairs immune function, wound healing, and increases the risk of surgical site infection. Other risk factors include obesity (BMI > 30), male gender, revision surgery, prolonged operative time, active infection elsewhere, and immunosuppression. BMI < 25 is protective. Female gender is generally not a risk factor. Elective primary procedures have a lower risk than revision or trauma. Prophylactic antibiotics reduce, rather than increase, the risk of PJI.