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Question 5721

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old female presents with progressive groin pain three years after undergoing a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty (THA). Aspiration of the hip yields clear fluid with negative cultures. An MRI with metal artifact reduction sequence (MARS) shows a large cystic periarticular mass. Which of the following serum markers are most likely to be significantly elevated in this patient?

. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP)
. Interleukin-6 (IL-6)
. Cobalt and Chromium ions
. Titanium and Vanadium ions
. Alpha-defensin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cobalt and Chromium ions


Explanation

The patient's presentation of a sterile periarticular cystic mass after a metal-on-metal THA is classic for an adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR) or pseudotumor. This condition is caused by the release of metallic debris and is characterized by significantly elevated serum Cobalt and Chromium ion levels due to bearing surface wear or trunnionosis.

Question 5722

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty for a patient with a severe fixed valgus deformity, the surgeon finds that the lateral side is significantly tight in both flexion and extension. Which of the following structures is typically the first to be released in a step-wise soft tissue balancing of a valgus knee?

. Medial collateral ligament (MCL)
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Iliotibial (IT) band
. Popliteus tendon
. Lateral head of the gastrocnemius

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliotibial (IT) band


Explanation

In a valgus knee deformity, the lateral structures are contracted and tight. Standard stepwise release typically begins with the Iliotibial (IT) band (often via a 'pie-crusting' technique or release from Gerdy's tubercle), especially if the knee is tightest in extension. Further releases may progress to the posterolateral capsule, popliteus, and lateral collateral ligament (LCL) depending on the specific tight flexion-extension gaps.

Question 5723

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old female undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty. To minimize the risk of dislocation, the surgeon pays close attention to component positioning. According to the Lewinnek safe zone, what is the ideal acetabular cup orientation?

. 30 degrees inclination and 10 degrees anteversion
. 40 degrees inclination and 15 degrees anteversion
. 50 degrees inclination and 25 degrees anteversion
. 40 degrees inclination and 5 degrees retroversion
. 45 degrees inclination and 0 degrees anteversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 40 degrees inclination and 15 degrees anteversion


Explanation

The Lewinnek safe zone for acetabular cup placement is historically defined as 40 +/- 10 degrees of inclination (abduction) and 15 +/- 10 degrees of anteversion. Placement outside this zone significantly increases the risk of postoperative dislocation.

Question 5724

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a posterior approach to the hip (Kocher-Langenbeck), the surgeon isolates the short external rotators. To protect the blood supply to the femoral head, particularly the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA), where should the obturator externus tendon be transected if its release is necessary?

. At the musculotendinous junction
. As far medially as possible
. It should never be released under any circumstances
. At its insertion on the piriformis fossa
. At its insertion on the trochanteric fossa

Correct Answer & Explanation

. At its insertion on the trochanteric fossa


Explanation

The terminal branches of the MFCA run closely adjacent to the obturator externus. If release is necessary, it should be done at the tendinous insertion (trochanteric fossa) to avoid injury to the main branch of the MFCA.

Question 5725

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a total knee arthroplasty (TKA), the surgeon notices that the knee is tight in flexion but stable and balanced in extension. Which of the following adjustments is most appropriate to balance the flexion gap?

. Resect more distal femur
. Downsize the femoral component
. Release the posterior capsule
. Increase the thickness of the polyethylene insert
. Release the medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component


Explanation

A knee that is tight in flexion but balanced in extension has an isolated tight flexion gap. Downsizing the femoral component increases the flexion gap space anteriorly and posteriorly without affecting the extension gap.

Question 5726

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 65-year-old man is undergoing a primary total hip arthroplasty (THA). The surgeon selects a high-offset femoral stem that increases femoral offset without altering leg length. Compared to a standard offset stem, what is the primary biomechanical consequence of this modification?

. Increased joint reaction force
. Decreased abductor moment arm
. Decreased joint reaction force
. Increased risk of bony impingement
. Increased femoral component micromotion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased joint reaction force


Explanation

Increasing femoral offset shifts the femur laterally, which increases the abductor moment arm. A longer abductor moment arm means the abductor muscles require less force to balance the pelvis. Because joint reaction force is heavily dependent on the vector sum of body weight and abductor muscle force, decreasing the required abductor force significantly decreases the overall joint reaction force, leading to improved mechanics and theoretically less wear.

Question 5727

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA), trial components are inserted. The surgeon observes that the knee is perfectly balanced and stable in full extension, but it is excessively tight in 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical step to balance the knee?

. Resect more distal femur
. Downsize the femoral component
. Upsize the femoral component
. Release the posterior capsule
. Resect more proximal tibia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component


Explanation

A knee that is balanced in extension but tight in flexion requires an increase in the flexion gap without altering the extension gap. Downsizing the femoral component (which effectively decreases the anteroposterior dimension of the femur) increases the flexion gap. Resecting more proximal tibia would increase both gaps symmetrically. Resecting more distal femur would only affect the extension gap.

Question 5728

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old woman with a metal-on-metal THA presents with progressive groin pain 4 years postoperatively. Advanced imaging reveals a large solid and cystic pelvic mass. A subsequent biopsy of the pseudotumor demonstrates a dense perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate. This pathology is a result of which immunological mechanism?

. Type I hypersensitivity
. Type II hypersensitivity
. Type IV hypersensitivity
. Macrophage-mediated osteolysis to particulate debris
. Indolent periprosthetic joint infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type IV hypersensitivity


Explanation

The classic histological finding of aseptic lymphocyte-dominated vasculitis-associated lesions (ALVAL) in metal-on-metal implants is a dense perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate. This represents a delayed, cell-mediated Type IV hypersensitivity reaction to metal ions (primarily cobalt and chromium).

Question 5729

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Based on classical criteria, which of the following is considered an absolute contraindication for a medial unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA) in a patient with medial compartment osteoarthritis?

. Age greater than 55 years
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) deficiency
. Patient weight greater than 82 kg
. Mild patellofemoral chondromalacia
. Flexion contracture of 5 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) deficiency


Explanation

Classic criteria for UKA (Kozinn and Scott) list ACL deficiency, inflammatory arthritis, flexion contracture > 15 degrees, fixed varus > 10 degrees, and fixed valgus > 5 degrees as absolute contraindications. While age > 55 and weight > 82 kg were previously relative contraindications, modern literature has largely debunked them. Mild PF joint disease is also typically well-tolerated. For board examination purposes, ACL deficiency remains the classical absolute contraindication among these choices.

Question 5730

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 68-year-old woman presents with persistent lateral anterior knee pain and clinical evidence of lateral patellar subluxation 1 year after a primary TKA. During revision surgery, malrotation of the components is suspected. Which of the following technical errors is the most common cause of lateral patellar maltracking in TKA?

. External rotation of the femoral component
. Internal rotation of the femoral component
. External rotation of the tibial component
. Medial placement of the patellar component
. Distalization of the joint line

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Internal rotation of the femoral component


Explanation

Internal rotation of either the femoral or tibial component relative to their anatomical axes increases the Q-angle, leading to lateral patellar maltracking. To optimize patellar tracking, the femoral component is typically externally rotated (relative to the posterior condylar axis) and the patellar button is placed medially.

Question 5731

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

According to the 2018 International Consensus Meeting (ICM) criteria for Periprosthetic Joint Infection (PJI), a synovial fluid analysis from a painful 2-year-old THA reveals a white blood cell (WBC) count of 4,500 cells/ยตL and 85% polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs). How are these specific laboratory results interpreted in the diagnostic scoring algorithm?

. They meet the major criteria, confirming PJI independently
. Only the WBC count is elevated enough to contribute points to the minor criteria
. Both the WBC count and the PMN percentage are elevated and contribute points to the minor criteria
. Only the PMN percentage is elevated enough to contribute points to the minor criteria
. These values are considered normal for a joint with a prosthesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Both the WBC count and the PMN percentage are elevated and contribute points to the minor criteria


Explanation

Under the 2018 ICM criteria for PJI, elevated synovial WBC count (> 3,000 cells/ยตL) and elevated synovial PMN percentage (> 80%) are both minor criteria. The WBC count gives 3 points and the PMN% gives 2 points toward the diagnosis of PJI (a score of 6 or higher is diagnostic).

Question 5732

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 32-year-old man with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus and high-dose corticosteroid use presents with severe left groin pain. Radiographs show a distinct subchondral lucency (crescent sign) in the femoral head without joint space narrowing. What is the most reliable and definitive surgical treatment for this patient?
. Core decompression alone
. Core decompression with bone marrow aspirate concentrate (BMAC)
. Total hip arthroplasty (THA)
. Proximal femoral osteotomy
. Vascularized free fibular graft

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total hip arthroplasty (THA)


Explanation

The presence of a crescent sign on plain radiographs signifies subchondral collapse (Ficat III / Steinberg III) of the femoral head due to osteonecrosis. Once mechanical collapse has occurred, joint-preserving procedures such as core decompression or vascularized fibular grafting have a high failure rate. Total hip arthroplasty provides the most reliable pain relief and functional improvement.

Question 5733

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During kinematic analysis of a posterior cruciate-retaining (CR) total knee arthroplasty, the patient is noted to have paradoxical anterior sliding of the femur on the tibia during deep flexion. What is the primary cause of this kinematic abnormality?

. A tight posterior cruciate ligament
. An insufficient or overly lax posterior cruciate ligament
. Over-resection of the distal femur
. Anterior placement of the tibial component
. Excessive posterior tibial slope

Correct Answer & Explanation

. An insufficient or overly lax posterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

In a normal knee or properly balanced CR TKA, the intact posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) engages during flexion to pull the femur posteriorly, a motion known as femoral rollback. If the PCL is insufficient, overly lax, or accidentally completely sectioned in a CR design, it fails to induce rollback, and the femur paradoxically slides anteriorly during flexion, potentially leading to limited motion and increased wear.

Question 5734

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 45-year-old man underwent an uncomplicated THA utilizing a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surface. At his 2-year follow-up, he complains of a loud, audible 'squeaking' sound from his hip when transitioning from sitting to standing. Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with the development of this complication?

. Leg length discrepancy greater than 1 cm
. Edge loading due to component malposition
. Corrosion at the head-neck junction (trunnionosis)
. Delayed indolent periprosthetic joint infection
. Heterotopic ossification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Edge loading due to component malposition


Explanation

Squeaking is a specific complication associated with ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty. It is highly correlated with edge loading of the ceramic bearings, which occurs due to micro-separation and stripe wear. This is most frequently caused by component malposition, such as excessive acetabular cup inclination or incorrect anteversion.

Question 5735

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a standard posterior approach (Moore/Southern) to the hip, which critical blood vessel is typically encountered near the superior border of the quadratus femoris and must be identified and coagulated to prevent significant postoperative hematoma?

. Lateral circumflex femoral artery
. Ascending branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery
. Descending branch of the inferior gluteal artery
. First perforating artery of the profunda femoris
. Superior gluteal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ascending branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery


Explanation

The ascending branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA), also known as the posterior retinacular artery, crosses the operative field at the superior border of the quadratus femoris and the inferior border of the obturator externus. It is routinely encountered during the posterior approach and must be carefully cauterized or ligated to prevent bleeding.

Question 5736

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary TKA using a measured resection technique, trial components are placed. The knee exhibits a 15-degree flexion contracture (tight in extension) but demonstrates excessive varus-valgus play at 90 degrees of flexion (loose in flexion). Which of the following adjustments will best resolve this specific mismatch?

. Upsize the femoral component
. Resect more distal femur and upsize the femoral component
. Resect more proximal tibia and use a thicker polyethylene insert
. Release the posterior capsule and downsize the femoral component
. Recut the proximal tibia with increased posterior slope

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Resect more distal femur and upsize the femoral component


Explanation

The knee is tight in extension, which requires increasing the extension gap by resecting more distal femur. The knee is loose in flexion, which requires decreasing the flexion gap by adding posterior femoral offset (upsizing the femoral component in the A-P dimension). Resecting more distal femur and upsizing the femoral component addresses both issues simultaneously without altering the tibial resection.

Question 5737

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A patient presents with persistent anterior knee pain and a subjective feeling of instability 6 months following a primary TKA. Standing radiographs demonstrate a significantly elevated joint line and secondary patella baja. Which of the following complications is most specifically associated with an elevated joint line in TKA?

. Increased risk of patellar clunk syndrome
. Mid-flexion instability
. Decreased patellofemoral contact pressure
. Hyperextension recurvatum
. Paradoxical anterior sliding

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mid-flexion instability


Explanation

Elevation of the joint line during TKA often results from excessive distal femoral resection combined with a thicker tibial polyethylene insert to balance the extension gap. This alters the isometry of the collateral ligaments as the knee moves through the arc of motion, leading to laxity in mid-flexion (mid-flexion instability). It also leads to relative patella baja, causing anterior knee pain.

Question 5738

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 58-year-old woman undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty (THA). To optimize hip biomechanics, the surgeon places the acetabular component medially and inferiorly to restore the anatomical center of rotation (COR). What is the effect of this component positioning on the overall joint reaction force (JRF) and the required abductor muscle force?

. Increases JRF, increases abductor force
. Decreases JRF, decreases abductor force
. Decreases JRF, increases abductor force
. Increases JRF, decreases abductor force
. No change in JRF, decreases abductor force

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreases JRF, decreases abductor force


Explanation

Medializing the COR increases the abductor moment arm and decreases the body weight moment arm. This mechanical advantage reduces the force required by the abductors to maintain a level pelvis, which subsequently decreases the overall joint reaction force.

Question 5739

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA) using a gap-balancing technique, the surgeon notes that with the trial components in place, the knee is symmetrically loose in full extension but perfectly balanced at 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following is the most appropriate corrective action?

. Release the posterior capsule
. Downsize the femoral component
. Decrease the distal femoral resection depth
. Increase the posterior slope of the tibial cut
. Upsize the tibial polyethylene insert

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decrease the distal femoral resection depth


Explanation

A knee that is loose in extension but balanced in flexion has an isolated enlarged extension gap. Decreasing the distal femoral resection (or using distal femoral augments) tightens the extension gap without affecting the flexion gap.

Question 5740

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old man presents with a Vancouver B2 periprosthetic femur fracture 8 years after a primary THA. Radiographs reveal a grossly loose femoral stem, but the proximal femoral bone stock remains adequate. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a lateral locking plate
. Revision to a fully porous-coated long cylindrical stem bypassing the fracture
. Revision to a cemented long stem
. Revision to a short impaction grafted stem
. Proximal femoral replacement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a fully porous-coated long cylindrical stem bypassing the fracture


Explanation

A Vancouver B2 fracture is characterized by a loose prosthesis with adequate surrounding bone stock. The standard of care is revision to a cementless long stem that bypasses the most distal fracture line by at least two cortical diameters, supplemented with cerclage cables.