This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee). Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 5041
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A surgeon is performing a cruciate-retaining (CR) total knee arthroplasty. Upon trialing the components, the surgeon notes that the anterior aspect of the tibial tray lifts off the baseplate during deep flexion. What is the most likely cause of this phenomenon?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A loose extension gap
Explanation
In a CR total knee arthroplasty, an excessively tight posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) causes excessive posterior femoral rollback during deep flexion. This tethering effect hinges the joint, lifting the anterior aspect of the tibial component.
Question 5042
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 62-year-old male is being evaluated for a unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA) for isolated medial compartment osteoarthritis. According to the classic Kozinn and Scott criteria, which of the following is an absolute contraindication for a medial UKA?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Patient age greater than 60 years
Explanation
Inflammatory arthritis (such as rheumatoid arthritis) is a strict contraindication for unicompartmental knee arthroplasty due to the global, progressive nature of the disease. Ideal candidates are non-obese, have an intact ACL, unicompartmental disease, correctable varus, and minimal flexion contractures (<15 degrees).
Question 5043
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 70-year-old male returns to the clinic 14 days after a primary total knee arthroplasty with an acutely swollen, red, and painful knee. He has had fevers for 24 hours. Aspiration confirms acute periprosthetic joint infection with a well-fixed implant. Which treatment has the highest likelihood of success for retaining his current implant?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Intravenous antibiotics for 6 weeks without surgical intervention
Explanation
DAIR (Debridement, Antibiotics, and Implant Retention) is most successful in acute hematogenous infections or early postoperative infections (typically < 3-4 weeks) when the implants are well-fixed. Crucially, the modular polyethylene liner must be exchanged to allow thorough debridement of the posterior capsule.
Question 5044
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
The use of a larger femoral head in total hip arthroplasty reduces the risk of dislocation primarily through which biomechanical mechanism?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increasing the acetabular offset
Explanation
A larger femoral head increases the 'jump distance' - the distance the femoral head must translate before it dislocates from the acetabulum. It also increases the head-neck ratio, which improves the arc of motion before component-to-component impingement occurs.
Question 5045
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a total knee arthroplasty for a fixed valgus deformity, the surgeon notes that the lateral gap is critically tight in flexion but balanced in extension. Which structure should be preferentially released to correct this specific gap mismatch?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Iliotibial band
Explanation
In the setting of a valgus knee, the popliteus tendon primarily affects the flexion gap. If the knee is tight laterally only in flexion, isolated release of the popliteus is indicated; conversely, the IT band primarily affects the extension gap.
Question 5046
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
While performing an anterolateral approach to the hip, the surgeon proceeds to release the reflected head of the rectus femoris to improve acetabular exposure. Ligation of which of the following vascular structures is necessary to prevent significant hemorrhage during this step?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial femoral circumflex artery
Explanation
The ascending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery transverses the operative field between the tensor fasciae latae and the sartorius/rectus interval. It must be identified and ligated during an anterolateral or direct anterior approach to prevent severe postoperative hematoma.
Question 5047
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 75-year-old female presents for revision total hip arthroplasty. Pelvic radiographs demonstrate severe acetabular bone loss. The teardrop is obliterated, Kohler's line is discontinuous (broken), and the hip center has migrated 4 cm superiorly and 2 cm medially. What is the correct Paprosky classification for this defect?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Type 2A
Explanation
A Paprosky Type 3B defect is characterized by severe superior migration (>3 cm) and severe medial migration (>1 cm) with disruption of Kohler's line, indicating loss of the medial wall. Type 3A defects feature superior migration but have an intact Kohler's line.
Question 5048
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In revision total knee arthroplasty, massive uncontained metaphyseal bone defects (AORI Type IIb or III) are identified in both the distal femur and proximal tibia. Which of the following reconstructive options provides the best long-term biologic fixation and construct rigidity for these specific defects?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Highly porous tantalum metaphyseal cones or titanium sleeves
Explanation
Highly porous metaphyseal cones and sleeves are the gold standard for managing severe, uncontained metaphyseal bone loss (AORI IIb/III) in revision TKA. They provide excellent initial mechanical stability and promote long-term biologic osteointegration.
Question 5049
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In the manufacturing of highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) for total hip arthroplasty, increasing the radiation dose to promote cross-linking results in which of the following mechanical changes compared to conventional ultra-high-molecular-weight polyethylene?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increased fatigue strength
Explanation
Highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) significantly reduces wear rates in total hip arthroplasty. However, the process of cross-linking and subsequent thermal treatment decreases certain mechanical properties, including ultimate tensile strength, ductility, fatigue strength, and resistance to crack propagation.
Question 5050
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A novel diagnostic laboratory test for periprosthetic joint infection (PJI) is evaluated in a multicenter study. If the prevalence of PJI in the tested population is artificially increased from 5% to 20% due to selection bias, how will the test's positive predictive value (PPV) and negative predictive value (NPV) change, assuming sensitivity and specificity remain constant?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. PPV increases, NPV increases
Explanation
Predictive values are highly dependent on disease prevalence in the tested population. As the prevalence of a disease increases, the probability that a positive test result is a true positive (PPV) increases, and the probability that a negative test result is a true negative (NPV) correspondingly decreases. Sensitivity and specificity are intrinsic properties of the test and are generally independent of prevalence.
Question 5051
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A patient develops persistent, unexplained pain, swelling, and a localized eczematous rash around the knee 6 months after a well-fixed total knee arthroplasty. Infection workup is completely negative. Dermatological patch testing is strongly positive for nickel. This delayed metal hypersensitivity reaction is primarily mediated by which of the following immune mechanisms?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes and activated macrophages
Explanation
Metal allergy (to elements like nickel, cobalt, or chromium) in joint arthroplasty represents a classic Type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity reaction. Unlike Types I, II, and III, which are antibody-mediated, Type IV is a cell-mediated response driven by previously sensitized T lymphocytes and macrophages that release cytokines upon re-exposure to the antigen (metal ions acting as haptens).
Question 5052
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Zirconia ceramics were historically developed to address the inherent brittleness and fracture risk of alumina in total joint arthroplasty. The advanced mechanism of "phase transformation toughening" in partially stabilized zirconia refers to a structural lattice shift at the tip of a propagating micro-crack. This toughening shift occurs between which two distinct crystalline phases?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Monoclinic to tetragonal
Explanation
Phase transformation toughening in zirconia ceramics occurs when mechanical stress at the leading tip of an advancing crack induces metastable tetragonal zirconia crystals to transform into the monoclinic phase. This specific phase transition is accompanied by a localized volume expansion (approximately 3-5%), which subsequently generates compressive stresses that actively close the crack and halt further propagation.
Question 5053
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
What type of wear is characterized by the transfer of material from a softer bearing surface (e.g., polyethylene) to a harder bearing surface (e.g., metal), leading to localized bonding and subsequent tearing of the softer material?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Abrasive wear
Explanation
Adhesive wear occurs when two articulating bearing surfaces form localized bonds due to high contact pressures. As motion continues, the softer material (polyethylene) is torn away and adheres to the harder surface (metal or ceramic), generating wear particles.
Question 5054
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In normal articular cartilage, the primary mechanism of lubrication during high-load, rapid motion (such as the heel strike phase of gait) is best described by which of the following models?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Boundary lubrication
Explanation
Elastohydrodynamic lubrication is the primary mechanism under high-load, dynamic, and rapid motion conditions. It relies on the elastic deformation of articular cartilage under pressure, which increases the surface area of contact and traps a fluid film of synovial fluid between the bearing surfaces, completely separating them.
Question 5055
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In the pathogenesis of aseptic loosening following total joint arthroplasty, the biological response is triggered by particulate wear debris. Which of the following cell types is the primary initiator of the osteolytic cascade by phagocytosing particles and subsequently releasing TNF-alpha, IL-1, and IL-6?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Osteoblast
Explanation
Macrophages are the primary effector cells in the innate immune response to implant wear debris (such as polyethylene particles). Upon phagocytosis of these particles, macrophages release pro-inflammatory cytokines (TNF-alpha, IL-1, IL-6, and PGE2), which stimulate osteoclastogenesis via the RANK/RANKL pathway, ultimately leading to periprosthetic osteolysis.
Question 5056
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) is utilized in total hip arthroplasty to minimize wear. High-dose irradiation generates free radicals that can cause oxidative degradation over time. How are these free radicals typically eliminated during manufacturing?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cold working
Explanation
Post-irradiation thermal treatment (melting or annealing) is required to extinguish residual free radicals in HXLPE, thereby preventing long-term oxidative degradation. Melting eliminates all free radicals but slightly reduces mechanical strength.
Question 5057
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
An MRI of the hip reveals an intra-articular mass requiring a surgical dislocation via a posterior approach. To protect the deep branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA), the tendon of which muscle must be preserved or carefully handled?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Piriformis
Explanation
The profound branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA) runs posterior to the obturator externus and anterior to the short external rotators. Preserving the obturator externus tendon helps protect the main blood supply to the femoral head.
Question 5058
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
An 80-year-old female presents with a periprosthetic femur fracture around her cemented total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs reveal a fracture extending around the tip of the stem. The stem is loose, but there is good remaining proximal and distal bone stock. What is the Vancouver classification, and what is the standard treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Vancouver B1; ORIF with a locked plate and cables
Explanation
The Vancouver classification for periprosthetic femur fractures defines Type B as fractures around the stem or just below it. It is subclassified based on implant stability and bone stock: B1 (well-fixed stem), B2 (loose stem, good bone stock), and B3 (loose stem, poor bone stock). A loose stem with adequate bone stock (B2) is treated with revision arthroplasty, typically using a long, diaphyseal-engaging stem to bypass the fracture.
Question 5059
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
An 80-year-old female presents with a periprosthetic femur fracture around a cemented total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs show a fracture at the tip of the stem. The stem is radiographically loose with subsidence, and the proximal femoral bone stock is extremely poor and fragmented. What is the Vancouver classification and the most appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Vancouver B1; Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate
Explanation
This is a Vancouver type B3 fracture. The fracture is around the stem or just distal to it (Type B), the stem is loose (which distinguishes it from B1), and the bone stock is poor (which distinguishes B3 from B2). The treatment for a B3 fracture is revision arthroplasty, often utilizing a long, fluted, tapered diaphyseal-engaging stem to bypass the fracture, or a proximal femoral replacement (megaprosthesis) if the bone cannot support any stem.
Question 5060
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
An 80-year-old female with a prior cemented total hip arthroplasty falls and sustains a periprosthetic femur fracture. Radiographs show a fracture around the tip of the stem. The stem appears radiographically loose, but there is adequate surrounding bone stock. According to the Vancouver classification, how is this classified and primarily treated?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Vancouver A; nonoperative management
Explanation
This is a Vancouver B2 periprosthetic fracture. Type B fractures occur around the stem or just below it. B1 indicates a well-fixed stem (treated with ORIF). B2 indicates a loose stem with adequate bone stock (treated with revision to a long bypass stem). B3 indicates a loose stem with poor bone stock (often requiring proximal femoral replacement).
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