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Question 4861

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 55-year-old male who underwent a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty 2 years ago presents complaining of an audible squeaking sound during ambulation. Radiographs show secure components. Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with the development of this phenomenon?

. Acetabular component retroversion
. Acetabular cup inclination greater than 50 degrees
. Femoral stem varus alignment
. Femoral stem retroversion
. Increased femoral offset

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular cup inclination greater than 50 degrees


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic hips is highly associated with component malposition, particularly excessive acetabular inclination (>50 degrees) or anteversion. This leads to edge loading, disruption of the fluid film lubrication, and stripe wear.

Question 4862

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old female presents with anterior knee pain and a painful catching sensation when actively extending her knee from 40 to 30 degrees of flexion. She underwent a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty one year ago. What is the most likely underlying etiology of her symptoms?

. Patellofemoral overstuffing
. Formation of a fibrous nodule at the superior pole of the patella
. Aseptic loosening of the femoral component
. Popliteus tendon impingement
. Undersized tibial tray

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patellofemoral overstuffing


Explanation

This presentation is classic for patellar clunk syndrome, a complication specific to posterior-stabilized TKA designs. It occurs when a fibrous nodule develops at the superior pole of the patella and catches in the intercondylar box of the femoral component during extension.

Question 4863

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old male with a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty utilizing a large-diameter cobalt-chromium head presents with progressive groin pain. Radiographs show well-fixed components. Aspiration yields sterile, low-WBC fluid. MRI demonstrates a large pseudotumor. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism?

. Polyethylene wear debris causing macrophage activation
. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the head-neck junction
. Galvanic corrosion at the stem-cement interface
. Ceramic fracture debris from previous surgery
. Type I immediate hypersensitivity reaction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Polyethylene wear debris causing macrophage activation


Explanation

This scenario describes trunnionosis, or adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR) resulting from mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (MACC) at the modular head-neck junction. It is particularly associated with large metal heads on distinct metal alloy stems.

Question 4864

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In kinematic alignment principles for total knee arthroplasty, the primary goal for orienting the femoral component is to align its transverse axis with which of the following native anatomical axes?

. Clinical transepicondylar axis
. Surgical transepicondylar axis
. Cylindrical axis of the femoral condyles
. Whiteside's line
. Mechanical axis of the femur

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Clinical transepicondylar axis


Explanation

Kinematic alignment aims to restore the patient's pre-arthritic constitutional alignment. For the femur, this involves aligning the component with the primary transverse axis of the knee, which is the cylindrical axis of the posterior femoral condyles.

Question 4865

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A patient experiences recurrent posterior dislocations of a total hip arthroplasty. CT evaluation reveals a combined anteversion (Widmer technique) of 15 degrees, with the acetabular cup at 5 degrees and the femoral stem at 10 degrees. What is the most appropriate revision strategy?

. Exchange the modular head to a larger diameter
. Revise the acetabular component to increase anteversion
. Revise the femoral stem to decrease anteversion
. Increase the femoral offset using a different modular neck
. Apply a constrained acetabular liner without changing version

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Exchange the modular head to a larger diameter


Explanation

The normal target for combined anteversion in THA is roughly 25 to 45 degrees. A combined anteversion of 15 degrees is too low and predisposes the patient to posterior dislocation. Revising the acetabular component to increase its version will restore appropriate stability.

Question 4866

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a total knee arthroplasty for a severe, fixed valgus deformity, standard releases are performed. Which structure is typically tightest and may require targeted release to effectively balance the extension gap laterally?

. Semimembranosus tendon
. Medial collateral ligament
. Iliotibial band
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Pes anserinus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Semimembranosus tendon


Explanation

In a fixed valgus knee, the lateral structures are contracted. The tightest structures typically requiring release to balance the extension gap include the iliotibial band (ITB), lateral collateral ligament (LCL), and posterolateral capsule.

Question 4867

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

An 80-year-old male sustains a fall resulting in a periprosthetic femur fracture around a previously asymptomatic THA.

Radiographs demonstrate a fracture pattern localized around the femoral stem. The stem exhibits obvious subsidence and loosening, but the proximal femoral bone stock remains adequate. What is the Vancouver classification and standard treatment?

. Vancouver A; ORIF with cerclage cables
. Vancouver B1; ORIF with lateral locking plate
. Vancouver B2; Revision with a long uncemented diaphyseal-engaging stem
. Vancouver B3; Revision with proximal femoral replacement
. Vancouver C; ORIF with plate fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vancouver A; ORIF with cerclage cables


Explanation

A fracture around the stem with a loose implant but good proximal bone stock is classified as Vancouver B2. The gold standard treatment is revision arthroplasty utilizing a long, fluted, tapered stem to bypass the fracture and achieve diaphyseal fixation.

Question 4868

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

If the femoral component in a total knee arthroplasty is inadvertently placed in excessive internal rotation relative to the surgical transepicondylar axis, what is the most likely biomechanical consequence?

. Lateral patellar maltracking and a tight medial flexion gap
. Medial patellar maltracking and a tight lateral flexion gap
. Anterior knee pain due to patellar clunk syndrome
. A symmetrically tight flexion gap
. Mid-flexion instability

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral patellar maltracking and a tight medial flexion gap


Explanation

Internal rotation of the femoral component elevates the anterolateral flange, pushing the patella medially and causing relative lateral maltracking. It also shifts the medial posterior condyle distally and posteriorly, causing a tight medial flexion gap.

Question 4869

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In strictly controlled in-vitro simulator studies, which of the following bearing surface combinations demonstrates the lowest linear and volumetric wear rates per million cycles?

. Cobalt-chromium on highly cross-linked polyethylene
. Ceramic on standard ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene
. Ceramic on highly cross-linked polyethylene
. Ceramic on ceramic
. Metal on metal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cobalt-chromium on highly cross-linked polyethylene


Explanation

Ceramic-on-ceramic articulations provide the highest scratch resistance and best fluid-film lubrication, resulting in the lowest wear rates of all available bearing surfaces (<1 micron/year in simulator testing).

Question 4870

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient with a midshaft femoral malunion presenting with 20 degrees of coronal varus requires a total knee arthroplasty. If standard intra-articular bone cuts perpendicular to the mechanical axis are performed without addressing the extra-articular deformity, what major intraoperative complication is most likely?

. Avulsion of the medial collateral ligament
. Excessive asymmetric resection of the femoral condyles compromising collateral ligament attachments
. Chronic patellar instability
. Anterior notching of the femur
. A severe fixed flexion contracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avulsion of the medial collateral ligament


Explanation

Correcting a severe extra-articular deformity (>10-15 degrees) purely with intra-articular cuts leads to extreme asymmetric bone resection. This often cuts into the origin of the collateral ligaments, resulting in profound instability that standard implants cannot address.

Question 4871

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A surgeon decides to increase the femoral offset during a primary total hip arthroplasty (THA) using a high-offset femoral stem. Assuming leg length remains unchanged, what is the primary biomechanical effect of this modification?

. Decreases the abductor moment arm and increases the joint reaction force
. Decreases the abductor moment arm and decreases the joint reaction force
. Increases the abductor moment arm and decreases the joint reaction force
. Increases the abductor moment arm and increases the joint reaction force
. Increases polyethylene wear due to increased compressive forces

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreases the abductor moment arm and increases the joint reaction force


Explanation

Increasing femoral offset lateralizes the greater trochanter, which lengthens the abductor moment arm. This improved mechanical advantage reduces the force required by the abductors, thereby significantly decreasing the overall joint reaction force across the hip.

Question 4872

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old patient presents with a 'clunking' sensation and recurrent instability in deep flexion 2 years after a posterior-stabilized (PS) total knee arthroplasty (TKA). What is the most likely biomechanical cause of this cam-post jump phenomenon?

. A tight extension gap
. A loose flexion gap
. A tight flexion gap
. Patella baja
. Excessive femoral component external rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A tight extension gap


Explanation

Cam-post disengagement (cam jump) in a PS knee typically occurs in deep flexion when the flexion gap is unacceptably loose. This allows the femur to translate anteriorly over the tibial post, leading to instability.

Question 4873

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 45-year-old man undergoes THA with a ceramic-on-ceramic (CoC) articulation. Postoperatively, he complains of a loud, high-pitched squeaking noise during gait. Which of the following component positions is most strongly associated with this phenomenon?

. Insufficient femoral offset
. Excessive acetabular anteversion and inclination leading to edge loading
. Excessive acetabular retroversion leading to posterior impingement
. Femoral stem varus positioning
. Loss of fluid film lubrication secondary to large head size (>40mm)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Insufficient femoral offset


Explanation

Squeaking in CoC bearings is heavily linked to stripe wear and edge loading. Edge loading most commonly occurs due to component malposition, specifically excessive cup steepness (inclination) or excessive anteversion.

Question 4874

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

According to the Musculoskeletal Infection Society (MSIS) / International Consensus Meeting (ICM) criteria, which of the following is considered a definitive major criterion for diagnosing a periprosthetic joint infection (PJI)?

. Elevated serum ESR > 30 mm/hr and CRP > 10 mg/L
. Positive alpha-defensin immunoassay
. Two positive periprosthetic tissue cultures with phenotypically identical organisms
. A single positive culture for Staphylococcus epidermidis
. Synovial fluid white blood cell (WBC) count > 3,000 cells/uL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Elevated serum ESR > 30 mm/hr and CRP > 10 mg/L


Explanation

The two major criteria for PJI are the presence of a sinus tract communicating with the joint, or two distinct positive tissue/fluid cultures yielding the same organism. Biomarkers like ESR, CRP, alpha-defensin, and synovial WBC are considered minor criteria.

Question 4875

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

During trialing of a primary TKA, the surgeon notes that the knee is perfectly balanced and achieves full extension, but it is unacceptably tight in 90 degrees of flexion, preventing full range of motion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Resect more distal femur
. Increase the posterior tibial slope
. Use a thicker polyethylene insert
. Upsize the femoral component
. Release the medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increase the posterior tibial slope


Explanation

A knee that is tight in flexion but balanced in extension requires a modification that only increases the flexion gap. Increasing the posterior tibial slope or downsizing the femoral component (with anterior referencing) will selectively open the flexion gap.

Question 4876

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 78-year-old woman presents with a periprosthetic femur fracture around her cemented THA stem after a fall. Radiographs demonstrate a spiral fracture at the tip of the stem with evidence of subsidence and a radiolucent mantle, but excellent proximal and distal bone stock. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) with cerclage cables alone
. ORIF with a laterally applied locking plate
. Revision THA with a standard-length cemented stem
. Revision THA with a long uncemented diaphyseal-engaging stem bypassing the fracture
. Proximal femoral replacement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision THA with a long uncemented diaphyseal-engaging stem bypassing the fracture


Explanation

This is a Vancouver B2 fracture (fracture around a loose stem with adequate bone stock). The standard of care is revision arthroplasty utilizing a long extensively porous-coated or fluted tapered stem that bypasses the most distal fracture line by at least two cortical diameters.

Question 4877

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient presents with a painful catch and an audible 'clunk' as their knee approaches terminal active extension 1 year after a posterior-stabilized TKA. What is the pathomechanism of this specific complication?

. Impingement of the popliteus tendon on the lateral femoral condyle
. A loose flexion gap causing the tibial post to subluxate posteriorly
. A fibrous nodule at the superior pole of the patella engaging the intercondylar box of the femur
. Aseptic loosening of the tibial tray leading to dynamic varus thrust
. Overstuffing of the anterior compartment causing quadriceps tendon friction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A fibrous nodule at the superior pole of the patella engaging the intercondylar box of the femur


Explanation

Patellar clunk syndrome is strongly associated with posterior-stabilized (PS) knee designs. It occurs when a fibrosynovial nodule develops at the superior pole of the patella and catches within the femoral intercondylar box during active extension from a flexed position.

Question 4878

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (MACC), or trunnionosis, has been identified as a cause of adverse local tissue reactions in non-metal-on-metal THA. Which combination of implant factors confers the highest risk for trunnionosis?

. Small femoral head diameter and short neck offset
. Ceramic femoral head and a standard titanium neck
. Large metallic femoral head diameter and a large offset neck
. Use of a 12/14 trunnion instead of a 11/13 trunnion
. Highly cross-linked polyethylene liner with a 28mm head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Large metallic femoral head diameter and a large offset neck


Explanation

Trunnionosis is exacerbated by increased frictional torque and bending moments at the head-neck junction. Large diameter metallic heads (>36mm) and long/high-offset necks significantly increase these mechanical stresses, accelerating MACC.

Question 4879

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR) and pseudotumor formation in metal-on-metal (MoM) hip arthroplasty (ALVAL) is primarily driven by which immunological mechanism?
. Type I hypersensitivity (IgE-mediated)
. Type II hypersensitivity (Cytotoxic)
. Type III hypersensitivity (Immune complex)
. Type IV hypersensitivity (Delayed cell-mediated)
. Foreign body macrophage-driven granulomatous reaction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type IV hypersensitivity (Delayed cell-mediated)


Explanation

Aseptic Lymphocytic Vasculitis-Associated Lesion (ALVAL) represents a delayed, cell-mediated Type IV hypersensitivity reaction to metal ions (cobalt and chromium). It is characterized histologically by dense perivascular lymphocytic infiltrates.

Question 4880

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

To minimize the risk of posterior dislocation following a primary THA, surgeons aim for an optimal 'combined anteversion' of the acetabular and femoral components. Based on classic principles, what is the generally accepted target range for combined anteversion?

. 5 to 15 degrees
. 25 to 45 degrees
. 50 to 65 degrees
. 70 to 85 degrees
. -10 to 0 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 25 to 45 degrees


Explanation

Combined anteversion (acetabular anteversion + femoral anteversion) is targeted between 25 and 45 degrees (often cited as the Ranawat or Widmer safe zones) to optimize stability and prevent both anterior and posterior impingement.