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Question 4821

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

According to the 2018 International Consensus Meeting (ICM) criteria, which of the following is considered a major criterion for the diagnosis of periprosthetic joint infection (PJI)?

. A single positive tissue culture
. Elevated serum C-reactive protein (CRP)
. Elevated synovial fluid white blood cell (WBC) count
. A sinus tract communicating with the prosthesis
. Positive synovial fluid leukocyte esterase strip

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A sinus tract communicating with the prosthesis


Explanation

The 2018 ICM criteria establish two major criteria for PJI: a sinus tract communicating with the joint, or two positive cultures growing the same organism. Any minor criteria (like elevated CRP, synovial WBC, or leukocyte esterase) require a scoring system.

Question 4822

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Dual mobility components in total hip arthroplasty reduce the risk of dislocation primarily through which biomechanical mechanism?

. Increasing the tension on the abductor musculature
. Providing a larger effective head diameter that increases the jump distance
. Mechanically locking the femoral head into the polyethylene liner
. Limiting the extreme range of motion of the hip
. Decreasing the overall offset of the hip

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Providing a larger effective head diameter that increases the jump distance


Explanation

Dual mobility constructs utilize a small femoral head captive within a larger mobile polyethylene sphere. This provides a larger effective head diameter (the outer diameter of the poly sphere articulating with the shell), substantially increasing the jump distance and reducing dislocation risk.

Question 4823

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

A 65-year-old female presents with persistent knee pain 2 years after a primary TKA. Infection workup is negative. She reports her knee feels unstable when walking down stairs. Examination reveals 15 degrees of recurvatum, 130 degrees of flexion, and a mid-flexion instability. What is the most likely cause of her mid-flexion instability?

. Elevated joint line
. Undersized femoral component
. Loose tibial baseplate
. Patellar maltracking
. Isolated lateral collateral ligament laxity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Elevated joint line


Explanation

Mid-flexion instability often occurs when the joint line is elevated during TKA. This alters the collateral ligament kinematics, leading to laxity in mid-flexion despite the knee being stable in full extension and 90 degrees of flexion.

Question 4824

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 70-year-old woman presents with sudden onset groin pain 6 weeks after an uncomplicated uncemented total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs show a Vancouver B2 periprosthetic femur fracture. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate alone
. Revision of the femoral component to a long-stem cemented implant
. Revision of the femoral component to a long-stem extensively porous-coated implant
. Cable plate fixation with structural allograft struts
. Nonoperative management with protected weight bearing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate alone


Explanation

A Vancouver B2 fracture is characterized by a fracture around a loose stem with adequate surrounding bone stock. The standard of care is revision of the femoral component to a long, diaphyseal-engaging porous-coated or fluted tapered stem that bypasses the fracture.

Question 4825

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Which of the following bearing surface combinations in total hip arthroplasty is most closely associated with the phenomenon of "stripe wear"?

. Cobalt-chrome on highly cross-linked polyethylene
. Ceramic on ceramic
. Ceramic on highly cross-linked polyethylene
. Cobalt-chrome on conventional polyethylene
. Oxidized zirconium on highly cross-linked polyethylene

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cobalt-chrome on highly cross-linked polyethylene


Explanation

Stripe wear is specifically seen in ceramic-on-ceramic articulations. It occurs due to microseparation during the swing phase, causing edge loading when the head re-engages the acetabular rim.

Question 4826

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 62-year-old male undergoes a primary total knee arthroplasty. Postoperatively, the patient develops a foot drop and paresthesias over the dorsum of the foot. The surgeon suspects a common peroneal nerve palsy. Which of the following preoperative deformities is most commonly associated with this complication?

. Severe varus with a fixed flexion contracture
. Severe valgus with a fixed flexion contracture
. Genu recurvatum
. Patella baja
. Extra-articular tibial malunion in varus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Severe varus with a fixed flexion contracture


Explanation

Common peroneal nerve palsy following TKA is most commonly associated with the correction of severe valgus and flexion contractures. The correction stretches the nerve, leading to neuropraxia or ischemia.

Question 4827

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 58-year-old male presents with groin pain 3 years after a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty. Inflammatory markers are normal. A MARS MRI shows a large, thick-walled cystic mass communicating with the joint. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Observation and repeat MRI in 1 year
. Ultrasound-guided aspiration for culture
. Measurement of serum cobalt and chromium levels
. Revision to a dual mobility bearing
. Resection of the pseudotumor without revision

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation and repeat MRI in 1 year


Explanation

In a patient with a metal-on-metal THA and a symptomatic pseudotumor (adverse local tissue reaction), serum metal ion levels (cobalt and chromium) must be checked. This assesses the severity of wear and systemic exposure prior to planning definitive revision surgery.

Question 4828

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In assessing a patient for a potential unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA), which of the following MRI findings is an absolute contraindication for a medial UKA?

. Intact anterior cruciate ligament with mucoid degeneration
. Full-thickness cartilage loss in the medial compartment
. Grade II chondromalacia of the patellofemoral joint
. Diffuse full-thickness cartilage loss in the lateral compartment
. Medial meniscal root tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intact anterior cruciate ligament with mucoid degeneration


Explanation

An absolute contraindication to a medial UKA is full-thickness cartilage loss or significant osteoarthritis in the contralateral (lateral) compartment. An intact ACL is required, and mild patellofemoral disease is generally tolerated.

Question 4829

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a revision total knee arthroplasty for aseptic loosening, the surgeon encounters a large uncontained (Type 3) diaphyseal bone defect in the proximal tibia. What is the most appropriate method for managing this specific defect?

. Cement with screw augmentation
. Structural allograft or porous metal cone/ sleeve
. Impaction bone grafting
. Standard primary tibial baseplate with an extended keel
. Cancellous autograft from the iliac crest

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cement with screw augmentation


Explanation

Large uncontained metaphyseal/diaphyseal defects (AORI Type 3) lack a rim of cortical bone. They require highly structural support, such as porous metal cones, sleeves, or structural allografts, combined with diaphyseal stem bypass.

Question 4830

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty utilizing a posterior-stabilized (PS) implant design, a central cam-and-post mechanism is incorporated. This specific design feature is intended to primarily substitute for which of the following native knee kinematic functions?

. Anterior translation of the femur on the tibia during early flexion
. Medial pivot of the tibia during terminal extension (screw-home mechanism)
. Varus-valgus stability during the entire arc of motion
. Posterior femoral rollback during deep knee flexion
. Prevention of anterior tibial subluxation in full extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior femoral rollback during deep knee flexion


Explanation

In the native knee, the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) forces the femur to slide posteriorly (rollback) on the tibia during deep flexion, which improves clearance and maximizes the flexion arc. In a PCL-substituting (PS) total knee arthroplasty, the interaction between the polyethylene tibial post and the femoral cam engages during mid-flexion to artificially replicate this posterior femoral rollback.

Question 4831

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon notes that the knee is well-balanced in extension but excessively tight in flexion. Which of the following adjustments is most appropriate to correct this specific mismatch?

. Recut the proximal tibia with more posterior slope
. Downsize the femoral component
. Release the posterior capsule
. Upsize the femoral component
. Release the medial collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Recut the proximal tibia with more posterior slope


Explanation

Downsizing the femoral component utilizing anterior referencing will decrease the posterior condylar offset, effectively increasing the flexion gap without altering the extension gap. Increasing the tibial slope also affects the flexion gap but alters the tibial cut geometry.

Question 4832

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In a young, highly active patient undergoing total hip arthroplasty, which of the following bearing surface combinations demonstrates the lowest volumetric wear rate?

. Metal-on-highly cross-linked polyethylene
. Ceramic-on-ceramic
. Ceramic-on-conventional polyethylene
. Metal-on-metal
. Ceramic-on-highly cross-linked polyethylene

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metal-on-highly cross-linked polyethylene


Explanation

Ceramic-on-ceramic bearings have the lowest volumetric wear rate among all combinations, making them appealing for young patients. However, they carry unique risks such as squeaking and catastrophic ceramic fracture.

Question 4833

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon uses trial components and notes that the knee is tight in flexion but well-balanced in full extension. Which of the following surgical adjustments is the most appropriate next step?

. Release the posterior capsule
. Resect additional distal femur
. Downsize the femoral component
. Resect additional proximal tibia
. Increase the thickness of the polyethylene insert

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Release the posterior capsule


Explanation

A knee that is tight in flexion but balanced in extension requires an increase in the flexion gap without altering the extension gap. Downsizing the femoral component using an anterior referencing system effectively increases the flexion gap.

Question 4834

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Which of the following vascular structures provides the predominant blood supply to the adult femoral head?

. Medial femoral circumflex artery
. Lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Artery of the ligamentum teres
. Inferior gluteal artery
. First perforating branch of the profunda femoris

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial femoral circumflex artery


Explanation

The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the vast majority of the blood supply to the adult femoral head. Injury to this vessel significantly increases the risk of avascular necrosis.

Question 4835

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In the context of a displaced proximal humerus fracture, which of the following radiographic predictors carries the highest risk for the development of avascular necrosis of the humeral head?

. Displacement of the greater tuberosity greater than 5 mm
. Shortening of the surgical neck by 1 cm
. Disruption of the medial hinge with a calcar segment shorter than 8 mm
. Valgus impaction of the articular head fragment
. Isolated avulsion of the lesser tuberosity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Displacement of the greater tuberosity greater than 5 mm


Explanation

According to the Hertel criteria, a metaphyseal head extension (calcar segment) of less than 8 mm and the disruption of the medial capsular hinge are the most reliable predictors of ischemia and subsequent avascular necrosis.

Question 4836

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a posterior approach to the hip (Kocher-Langenbeck), the main blood supply to the femoral head must be protected. The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) is most at risk during the surgical release of which of the following structures?

. Piriformis tendon
. Obturator internus tendon
. Quadratus femoris muscle
. Gluteus maximus insertion
. Superior gemellus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Piriformis tendon


Explanation

The MFCA runs deep to the quadratus femoris muscle. When releasing the quadratus femoris, the surgeon must leave a cuff of muscle attached to the femur or stay superficial to avoid injury to the MFCA, which is the predominant blood supply to the femoral head.

Question 4837

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip requires splitting the gluteus medius. To avoid iatrogenic denervation, the proximal split should not extend beyond what distance from the tip of the greater trochanter?

. 1 cm
. 3 cm
. 5 cm
. 8 cm
. 10 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1 cm


Explanation

The superior gluteal nerve supplies the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae. Splitting the gluteus medius more than 5 cm proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter places this nerve at significant risk of transection.

Question 4838

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip, proximal splitting of the gluteus medius is limited to prevent denervation of the anterior portion of the muscle. The superior gluteal nerve is at greatest risk if the split extends more than what distance proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter?

. 1 cm
. 3 cm
. 5 cm
. 8 cm
. 10 cm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 1 cm


Explanation

The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae. It is located approximately 5 cm proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter, marking the superior limit of the "safe zone" for splitting the gluteus medius.

Question 4839

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In the manufacturing of highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) for total hip arthroplasty, what is the primary consequence of the remelting process performed after gamma irradiation?

. Eliminates free radicals but reduces fatigue strength
. Eliminates free radicals and increases fatigue strength
. Retains free radicals but reduces oxidation potential
. Increases crystallinity and improves yield strength
. Increases the wear rate by altering the polymer chain orientation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Eliminates free radicals but reduces fatigue strength


Explanation

Gamma irradiation is used to cross-link polyethylene, which significantly decreases its wear rate. However, irradiation creates free radicals that can react with oxygen, leading to oxidation and degradation over time. To eliminate these free radicals, the polyethylene undergoes either remelting (heating above the melting point) or annealing (heating below the melting point). Remelting successfully eliminates all free radicals, making it highly oxidation-resistant, but it decreases crystallinity, which reduces the material's mechanical properties, such as fatigue strength and yield strength.

Question 4840

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a total hip arthroplasty, the surgeon decides to medialize the acetabular component to the true floor of the acetabulum. How does this modification alter the biomechanics of the hip joint in the coronal plane?

. Increases the abductor moment arm
. Increases the body weight moment arm
. Decreases the overall joint reaction force
. Increases the joint reaction force by lengthening the offset
. Decreases the tension on the gluteus medius

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increases the abductor moment arm


Explanation

Medializing the center of rotation of the hip decreases the moment arm of the body weight (the distance from the symphysis to the hip center). Because the body weight moment arm is shortened, the abductor muscles need to generate less force to maintain a level pelvis during single-leg stance. Consequently, the overall joint reaction force (which is the sum of the body weight and the abductor force) is decreased. This is a fundamental principle of hip biomechanics described by Pauwels.