This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee). Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 4821
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
According to the 2018 International Consensus Meeting (ICM) criteria, which of the following is considered a major criterion for the diagnosis of periprosthetic joint infection (PJI)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A sinus tract communicating with the prosthesis
Explanation
The 2018 ICM criteria establish two major criteria for PJI: a sinus tract communicating with the joint, or two positive cultures growing the same organism. Any minor criteria (like elevated CRP, synovial WBC, or leukocyte esterase) require a scoring system.
Question 4822
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Dual mobility components in total hip arthroplasty reduce the risk of dislocation primarily through which biomechanical mechanism?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Providing a larger effective head diameter that increases the jump distance
Explanation
Dual mobility constructs utilize a small femoral head captive within a larger mobile polyethylene sphere. This provides a larger effective head diameter (the outer diameter of the poly sphere articulating with the shell), substantially increasing the jump distance and reducing dislocation risk.
Question 4823
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A 65-year-old female presents with persistent knee pain 2 years after a primary TKA. Infection workup is negative. She reports her knee feels unstable when walking down stairs. Examination reveals 15 degrees of recurvatum, 130 degrees of flexion, and a mid-flexion instability. What is the most likely cause of her mid-flexion instability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Elevated joint line
Explanation
Mid-flexion instability often occurs when the joint line is elevated during TKA. This alters the collateral ligament kinematics, leading to laxity in mid-flexion despite the knee being stable in full extension and 90 degrees of flexion.
Question 4824
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 70-year-old woman presents with sudden onset groin pain 6 weeks after an uncomplicated uncemented total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs show a Vancouver B2 periprosthetic femur fracture. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate alone
Explanation
A Vancouver B2 fracture is characterized by a fracture around a loose stem with adequate surrounding bone stock. The standard of care is revision of the femoral component to a long, diaphyseal-engaging porous-coated or fluted tapered stem that bypasses the fracture.
Question 4825
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following bearing surface combinations in total hip arthroplasty is most closely associated with the phenomenon of "stripe wear"?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cobalt-chrome on highly cross-linked polyethylene
Explanation
Stripe wear is specifically seen in ceramic-on-ceramic articulations. It occurs due to microseparation during the swing phase, causing edge loading when the head re-engages the acetabular rim.
Question 4826
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 62-year-old male undergoes a primary total knee arthroplasty. Postoperatively, the patient develops a foot drop and paresthesias over the dorsum of the foot. The surgeon suspects a common peroneal nerve palsy. Which of the following preoperative deformities is most commonly associated with this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Severe varus with a fixed flexion contracture
Explanation
Common peroneal nerve palsy following TKA is most commonly associated with the correction of severe valgus and flexion contractures. The correction stretches the nerve, leading to neuropraxia or ischemia.
Question 4827
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 58-year-old male presents with groin pain 3 years after a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty. Inflammatory markers are normal. A MARS MRI shows a large, thick-walled cystic mass communicating with the joint. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Observation and repeat MRI in 1 year
Explanation
In a patient with a metal-on-metal THA and a symptomatic pseudotumor (adverse local tissue reaction), serum metal ion levels (cobalt and chromium) must be checked. This assesses the severity of wear and systemic exposure prior to planning definitive revision surgery.
Question 4828
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In assessing a patient for a potential unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA), which of the following MRI findings is an absolute contraindication for a medial UKA?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Intact anterior cruciate ligament with mucoid degeneration
Explanation
An absolute contraindication to a medial UKA is full-thickness cartilage loss or significant osteoarthritis in the contralateral (lateral) compartment. An intact ACL is required, and mild patellofemoral disease is generally tolerated.
Question 4829
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a revision total knee arthroplasty for aseptic loosening, the surgeon encounters a large uncontained (Type 3) diaphyseal bone defect in the proximal tibia. What is the most appropriate method for managing this specific defect?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cement with screw augmentation
Explanation
Large uncontained metaphyseal/diaphyseal defects (AORI Type 3) lack a rim of cortical bone. They require highly structural support, such as porous metal cones, sleeves, or structural allografts, combined with diaphyseal stem bypass.
Question 4830
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a primary total knee arthroplasty utilizing a posterior-stabilized (PS) implant design, a central cam-and-post mechanism is incorporated. This specific design feature is intended to primarily substitute for which of the following native knee kinematic functions?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior femoral rollback during deep knee flexion
Explanation
In the native knee, the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) forces the femur to slide posteriorly (rollback) on the tibia during deep flexion, which improves clearance and maximizes the flexion arc. In a PCL-substituting (PS) total knee arthroplasty, the interaction between the polyethylene tibial post and the femoral cam engages during mid-flexion to artificially replicate this posterior femoral rollback.
Question 4831
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon notes that the knee is well-balanced in extension but excessively tight in flexion. Which of the following adjustments is most appropriate to correct this specific mismatch?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Recut the proximal tibia with more posterior slope
Explanation
Downsizing the femoral component utilizing anterior referencing will decrease the posterior condylar offset, effectively increasing the flexion gap without altering the extension gap. Increasing the tibial slope also affects the flexion gap but alters the tibial cut geometry.
Question 4832
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In a young, highly active patient undergoing total hip arthroplasty, which of the following bearing surface combinations demonstrates the lowest volumetric wear rate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Metal-on-highly cross-linked polyethylene
Explanation
Ceramic-on-ceramic bearings have the lowest volumetric wear rate among all combinations, making them appealing for young patients. However, they carry unique risks such as squeaking and catastrophic ceramic fracture.
Question 4833
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a primary total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon uses trial components and notes that the knee is tight in flexion but well-balanced in full extension. Which of the following surgical adjustments is the most appropriate next step?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Release the posterior capsule
Explanation
A knee that is tight in flexion but balanced in extension requires an increase in the flexion gap without altering the extension gap. Downsizing the femoral component using an anterior referencing system effectively increases the flexion gap.
Question 4834
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following vascular structures provides the predominant blood supply to the adult femoral head?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial femoral circumflex artery
Explanation
The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) provides the vast majority of the blood supply to the adult femoral head. Injury to this vessel significantly increases the risk of avascular necrosis.
Question 4835
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In the context of a displaced proximal humerus fracture, which of the following radiographic predictors carries the highest risk for the development of avascular necrosis of the humeral head?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Displacement of the greater tuberosity greater than 5 mm
Explanation
According to the Hertel criteria, a metaphyseal head extension (calcar segment) of less than 8 mm and the disruption of the medial capsular hinge are the most reliable predictors of ischemia and subsequent avascular necrosis.
Question 4836
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
During a posterior approach to the hip (Kocher-Langenbeck), the main blood supply to the femoral head must be protected. The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) is most at risk during the surgical release of which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Piriformis tendon
Explanation
The MFCA runs deep to the quadratus femoris muscle. When releasing the quadratus femoris, the surgeon must leave a cuff of muscle attached to the femur or stay superficial to avoid injury to the MFCA, which is the predominant blood supply to the femoral head.
Question 4837
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip requires splitting the gluteus medius. To avoid iatrogenic denervation, the proximal split should not extend beyond what distance from the tip of the greater trochanter?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 1 cm
Explanation
The superior gluteal nerve supplies the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae. Splitting the gluteus medius more than 5 cm proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter places this nerve at significant risk of transection.
Question 4838
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
During a direct lateral (Hardinge) approach to the hip, proximal splitting of the gluteus medius is limited to prevent denervation of the anterior portion of the muscle. The superior gluteal nerve is at greatest risk if the split extends more than what distance proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 1 cm
Explanation
The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae. It is located approximately 5 cm proximal to the tip of the greater trochanter, marking the superior limit of the "safe zone" for splitting the gluteus medius.
Question 4839
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In the manufacturing of highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) for total hip arthroplasty, what is the primary consequence of the remelting process performed after gamma irradiation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Eliminates free radicals but reduces fatigue strength
Explanation
Gamma irradiation is used to cross-link polyethylene, which significantly decreases its wear rate. However, irradiation creates free radicals that can react with oxygen, leading to oxidation and degradation over time. To eliminate these free radicals, the polyethylene undergoes either remelting (heating above the melting point) or annealing (heating below the melting point). Remelting successfully eliminates all free radicals, making it highly oxidation-resistant, but it decreases crystallinity, which reduces the material's mechanical properties, such as fatigue strength and yield strength.
Question 4840
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a total hip arthroplasty, the surgeon decides to medialize the acetabular component to the true floor of the acetabulum. How does this modification alter the biomechanics of the hip joint in the coronal plane?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increases the abductor moment arm
Explanation
Medializing the center of rotation of the hip decreases the moment arm of the body weight (the distance from the symphysis to the hip center). Because the body weight moment arm is shortened, the abductor muscles need to generate less force to maintain a level pelvis during single-leg stance. Consequently, the overall joint reaction force (which is the sum of the body weight and the abductor force) is decreased. This is a fundamental principle of hip biomechanics described by Pauwels.
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